AIRMAN (AN)

Personnel involved in the towing of aircraft must be alert and exercise extreme care. Tractor drivers must always maintain a safe distance from parked aircraft and be on the alert for movements of other aircraft. Motorized vehicles used to service aircraft or those used near aircraft must be driven or parked adjacent to aircraft so that inadvertent movement of the vehicle will not result in a collision. When aircraft are serviced, all refueling vehicles should be parked forward of the aircraft and parallel to the wing. The refueling vehicle should be parked at a point as distant from the aircraft as the length of hose permits, and preferably to the windward (upwind) side of the aircraft. If it is necessary to park near a parked aircraft, the hand brake of a motorized vehicle must be set and the ignition turned off. If the service being rendered requires running the motor, the motorized vehicle must be manned. The speed limit for operating vehicles on airfields in the vicinity of aircraft and hangars (50 feet) is 5 miles per hour (mph). On runways, taxiways, parking areas, ramps, and work areas, the speed limit is 10 mph. When aircraft are towed, the towing speed should never be faster than the slowest person can walk or exceed 5 mph. Sudden starts and stops must be avoided. Extreme caution must be exercised when an aircraft is towed over unprepared surfaces or into or through a congested area. Hazards of Support Equipment Tow tractors, electrical power units, hydraulic jennys, jet aircraft start units, air conditioners, nitrogen carts, work stands, jacks, floodlight carts, and utility vehicles are mostly big, heavy, clumsy, noisy, and dangerous. You should always be aware of the following support equipment hazards.  Smoking or having an open flame around or near aircraft and fueling equipment is strictly prohibited.  Never operate support equipment that you are not licensed and qualified to operate.  High voltage can zap you and aircraft electric systems without warning.  High pressure air or hydraulics can blow up hoses, equipment, aircraft systems, or personnel.  Contamination, (water, dirt, grease, oil, trash, foreign object damage (FOD)), when introduced to the wrong system, can ruin an aircraft or support equipment, or injure personnel.  Unfamiliar controls on support equipment can cause you to go in directions you didn't intend.  Cables and hoses hooked up to aircraft incorrectly may cause damage.  Avoid breathing fuel vapors and noxious gases that can make you sick or kill you.  Defective, nonstandard, or jury-rigged hoses, cables, plugs, and devices can kill you or damage an aircraft.  Avoid loud noises by wearing appropriate hearing protection.  Driver's seats that restrict visibility can cause you to run over people, equipment, or aircraft.  Crankcases and radiators ruin an engine when they run dry.  Jacks or work stands that collapse because of neglect or improper use can spoil your day. 11-2

Figure 11-1 — Cranial helmet assembly. Figure 11-2 — MK 1 inflatable life preserver. Color Markings of Equipment All handling and servicing equipment used around aircraft have standard colors and markings. This is necessary so that the equipment and markings can be seen easily by pilots taking off, landing, or taxiing in aircraft, or by tower operators. These colors and markings identify the equipment as be ing authorized for use around aircraft on flight decks, hangar bays, parking ramps, taxiways, and runways. Most support equipment is painted yellow and/or white with reflective tape strips on the corners. The front and rear bumpers are painted with alternate black and yellow stripes at a 45- degree angle. Danger areas, such as intakes/exhausts and front/rear pintels for attaching tow bars, are painted red. FIXED WING AIRCRAFT HANDLING The combined efforts of officers and crewmen are necessary to conduct effective air operations on an aircraft carrier. There are those who have prepared the plans, briefed the pilots, plotted the weather, and fueled and armed the aircraft. There are others who assist in launching and landing the aircraft. After the aircraft have returned, there are still others who check the results, debrief with the pilots, interpret the photographic findings, and refuel and rearm in preparation for the next flight. The efficient and coordinated efforts of all persons concerned are of vital importance to the success of the operation. As part of this team, personnel whose duties require them to work on the flight deck must wear the proper flight deck uniform. All personnel must wear a cranial impact helmet with liner, goggles, and sound attenuators (Figure 11-1). Personnel who work on the flight deck must also wear a long sleeve jerseys and trousers, flight deck shoes, an inflatable life preserver outfitted with distress light marker and sea dye marker, and a secured whistle (Figure 11-2). All personnel assigned flight quarters stations on or above the hangar deck level must wear this uniform as described in Table 11-1. Notice the different colors identifying different assignments or jobs. 11-3

Plane-Handling Crews The V-1 division is responsible for handling aircraft on the flight deck, and the V-3 division is responsible on the hangar deck. The personnel, other than plane directors, assigned to h andling crews are usually Airmen from these divisions. A complete handling crew normally consists of a director, crew leader, one safety man, and six to ten Airmen. The director is usually an ABH, and is the only petty officer in the crew. He is responsible for the crew and directs them in the movement of aircraft. The crew leader acts as the director's assistant, and is in charge of the crew in the absence of the director. Crew members are stationed near the wing tips on the opposite side of the aircraft and act as wing walkers. One crew member is referred to as the safety man. It is his/her duty to keep the director info rmed about the safety of the aircraft and to prevent accidental damage and personal injury. Two of the crew members serve as chockmen. They tend the chocks, removing them and chocking the aircraft when the director gives the signal. Wh en aircraft are moved on the hangar deck, directors must make sure they do not hit bulkheads, hangar deck fixtures, support equipment, or other aircraft. The handling crew safety men are in the best position to prevent collisions of this sort. It is the plane director's responsibility to keep the crew thoroughly informed about safety precautions for handling aircraft. Each crew member must know his/her responsibility as an individual and as a member of the plane-handling crew. A good plane director must be able to obtain maximum efficiency fro m his/her crew. When aircraft are being moved on the flight deck or hangar bay by handling crews, verbal orders (w ith or without radio headsets), hand signals, and whistles are used in giving directions. You must remember that the noise level on an operating carrier during landing and launching operations is very high. All verbal orders must be given in a loud and clear manner. Indistinct directions or orders may lead to costly accidents. When a high noise level can cause misunderstanding, the plane director mu st make sure that directions are understood by some form of return signal from his crewmen. In most cases the aircraft crew station is manned during a move. This person acts as a brake rider, and only qualified personnel are allowed to perform this task. When moving an aircraft by pushing, handling crews must know the proper positions for pushing to p revent damage to the aircraft. Crews must also know the correct use of handling equipment and the proper use of aircraft securing equipment.

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Table 11-1 — Authorized Flight Quarters Clothing

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Launching Procedure As soon as the flight requirements for a launch are known, the aircraft handling officer holds a briefing, which is attended by key flight deck personnel, including flight directors, spotters, catapult and arresting gear personnel, and crash and salvage personnel. Specific launch procedures and sequences are given, the disposition of aircraft that go down is determined, and the directors and spotters are informed about their specific part in the operation. After the briefing, directors inform their cre ws of the details of the launch, and the aircraft are spotted on the flight deck. Details of the recovery are included in the next launch briefing, and crews must always be aware that the need for a ready deck could arise at any time because of an emergency situation. Aircraft are spotted as to type, mission, and what catapult is to be used to ensure an even, continuous flow to the catapults. Since most aircraft are jets, they are catapulted. Conventional (reciprocating and turboprop) aircraft can be either catapulted or deck launched. The search and rescue helicopter is no rmally the first aircraft launched and the last to be recovered. Flight quarters are usually sounded 1 to 2 hours before the launch time. The flight deck becomes very active. All Air Department personnel engage in a FOD walkdown. The walkdown finds things (nuts, bolts, safety wire, and general trash) that could be sucked into an aircraft's engine or blown by exhaust that could cause serious damage or injury. Plane captains single up on aircraft tie-down chains. Arming crews load aircraft with the appropriate armament. Fueling crews check aircraft for load s. Catapult and arresting gear crews check their machinery and equipment. Plane-handling crews make last minute respots and check tow tractors and other plane-handling equipment. Crash and salvage (C/S) is manned 24 hours a day. They break out the equipment the day the vessel gets un der way with aircraft aboard. The only requirement of the crash and salvage crew thereafter is to inventory and check out the gear. Approximately 30 minutes before launch time, flight crews perform their final checks to start the engines upon the signal from primary fly control (PRI-FLY). Flight deck control coordinates ground cre ws to provide the aircraft with air conditioning, electrical power, engine start high-pressure air, to mo ve or respot aircraft as required, and to manage all aircraft securing equipment. Once complete, the first launch aircraft are started.

Directing Taxiing Aircraft During flight operations, the speed with which aircraft can be launched and recovered depends largely upon the efficiency of the plane directors. When launching, aircraft must be moved out of the spotting area and positioned on a catapult or takeoff spot, often coming within inches of the flight deck or other aircraft. Under these conditions, mistakes prove costly. When an aircraft lands, it must be released from the arresting gear, moved forward, and spotted to make room for the next aircraft landing. Three important rules for you to remember in directing taxiing aircraft are as follows: 1. Make sure the pilot can see the signals. The standard position for the director is slightly ahead of the aircraft and in line with the left wing tip, but the position may have to be adjusted aboard a carrier. A foolproof test is "if you can see the pilot's eyes, the pilot can see your signals." 2. The person being signaled must know and understand the signals and use them in a precise manner. Indistinct signals or poor execution of signals will lead to casualties. WARNING Beware of jet blast, props, and rotors. 11-6

3. When taxiing an aircraft, you must use extreme caution to prevent personnel from being caught in the jet blast exhaust and being severely burned or blown overboard. Other aircraft and/or support equipment could suffer a similar fate. As the carrier turns into the wind, you must have coordination between PRI-FLY, which gives the catapult officer the signal to launch, flight deck control, which oversees the movement of all aircraft, and the bridge, which gives permission to commence the launch.

When the flight deck is readied (equipment, lighting, personnel, etc.) and all final checks are performed, the proper signals and communications are given for launch by primary flight control. Then, the catapult officer launches an aircraft from the catapult, then another, giving only sufficient time for the first aircraft to clear the bow of the ship. As the catapult officer launches an aircraft, the directors move another aircraft into the launch position. The intervals between aircraft being launched is p redetermined and reflects case 1, 2, or 3 launch. Normally, intervals are as close as 30 seconds or within a safe launch sequence. This procedure is co ntinued, alternating between the catapults (2, 3, or 4) until all jet aircraft are airborne. Conventional aircraft may be catapulted or deck launched, depending on the operational situation. In this manner, an entire deckload of aircraft can be launched in a matter of minutes. Landing Procedure Landing aircraft on a carrier is one of the most dangerous operations performed. All hands not involved in landing operations are ordered to clear the flight deck, catwalks, and guntubs. Personnel whose duties require that they be in exposed places must keep alert and watch incoming aircraft so they can get clear in case of an abnormal or emergency landing.

Before the aircraft landing, the flight deck aft is checked by the arresting gear officer to ensure the following:  Catapult gear is clear of the landing area.  The shuttle is retracted and the cover is in place on the No. 3 catapult.  Sheaves are up in the aircraft area.  The Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS) is turned on, or the manually operated visual landing system (MOVLAS) is rigged in its place.  The barricade hatch is clear, and a tractor is hooked to the stored barricade if it is needed.  The green rotating beacon at the aft end of the island is turned on.  The aircraft are clear of the fouled deck line.  The arresting gear crews are manned and ready.  The landing signal officer's (LSO ’s) platform is manned and ready. NOTE PRI-FLY has control for all flight deck lighting, landing spot lighting, flight deck floodlights, the stabilized glide slope indicator (SGSI), and the flight deck rotary beacon. WARNING Personnel should not turn their backs on landing aircraft or aircraft taxiing out of the arresting gear. 11-7

 The gear is set for the first aircraft. (The recovery officer then calls, "Gear manned and rea dy; need a green light from the PRI-FLY.")

 The stanchions are all the way down.  The removable coamings are stored.  The aircraft elevators are up and in the locked position. The ship is then turned into the wind, and the air officer switches the aft rotating beacon from red to green, giving the pilot the signal to begin landing operations. The aircraft enters a standard traffic pattern for the landing approach. The LSO stationed portside aft on the flight deck monitors or directs the pilot in the final approach. By using various signals or radio v oice communications, the LSO corrects any discrepancy in the aircraft's speed, altitude, and attitude. If it is a propeller-driven aircraft, once in the proper position, the LSO gives the pilot a "cut." The "cut" signal can be a hand signal, a light signal, a radio transmission, or a combination of any two of these signals. The pilot then flies the aircraft onto the deck. If, on approaching the flight deck, the aircraft is not in the proper position, the pilot is given a ”wave-off” by the LSO. This means that the pilot must again enter the traffic pattern and make a new approach. The FLOLS is a major improvement in carrier aviation. This system places the major control of the aircraft in the hands of one person (the pilot) instead of two. It also gives the pilot quicker, more certain awareness of errors in his/her approach. Using the FLOLS, the aircraft enters a standard traffic pattern for the landing approach. The FLOLS provides continuous glide path information to the pilot. Propeller-type aircraft are given a "cut" signal by li ght or voice radio by the LSO. The pilot must maintain correct airspeed and line up the center line of the landing area. If the aircraft is not on the glide path or the deck is foul, the LSO flashes the WAVE-OFF light located on the FLOLS. The wave-off is mandatory, and the pilot must again enter the traffic pattern and m ake a new approach. If a jet aircraft makes a good approach and the deck is clear, no signal is given by the LSO. The aircraft continues on the glide path with power on until it contacts the deck and comes to a complete stop. If the aircraft is not arrested, it continues toward the end of the angled deck. The pilot must again enter the traffic pattern for another approach. (This is referred to as a "bolter.") After an aircraft has engaged a cross-deck pendant (cable) and comes to a complete stop, the gear puller, a director assigned to direct aircraft from the landing area, gives the signal to either raise the hook or to pull the aircraft backwards. This allows the gear puller to have sufficient slack on the cross- deck pendant so he can safely raise the tailhook. In the event the tailhook cannot be raised, the crash and salvage crew may either free the cable or manually raise the hook. The hook runner acts as a sa fety check and displays the emergency hold signal directed to th e arresting gear console operator. When the aircraft is free of the cross-deck pendant, the director taxies the aircraft clear of the landing area; the deck is then readied for another landing. An a lternating red and white striped line that runs the length of the flight deck, known as the foul line or safe parking line, separates this area from the rest of the deck. The fly one director then taxies the aircraft to a position so the nose of the aircraft is pointed over the side, and stops the aircraft. NOTE Aircraft carriers with an angled deck elevator also have to be checked for the following items. 11-8

Figure 11-3 — Aircraft barricade. The director ensures that the area directly in front of the aircraft is clear of personnel and of other aircraft. He/she then turns the aircraft over to the ordnance crew for disarming. He/she displays a hold signal to the pilot with one hand and points to the ordnance director with the other. Once the disarming is accomplished, the V-1 director then directs the aircraft for parking or to be spott ed. Spotting Aircraft Most carriers have a basic spotting order. This spotting order varies from carrier to carrier to suit the fli ght-deck layout. After the aircraft is spotted, chocked, and secured, the plane captain takes over from the pilot. The plane captain stays with the aircraft until it is parked in its final spot. Certain aircraft must be spotted in a specific location to permit servicing, loading of ammunition, starting, fueling, maintenance, and so forth. For certain large aircraft, the spotting location must not interfere with the movement of other aircraft or launching or reco very operations. This process is repeat ed until all aircraft have landed. After all aircraft have landed, the flight deck is respotted by the handling crews for the next launch. Tow tractors are used to move the aircraft around the flight deck when taxiing cannot be done. When the refueling, servicing, rearming, or any minor maintenance is completed, the carrier is again ready to launch aircraft. The entire procedure from launch to landing and respotting takes about 90 minutes. Emergency Recovery Equipment Barricades (Figure 11-3) are that part of the emergency recovery equipment used for the emergency arrestment (stopping) of an aircraft that cannot make a normal (pendant) arrested landing. Barricades are used when aircraft have battle damage, tailhook failure, or some other mechanical failure. The barricade has expandable nylon webbing that is stretched across the flight deck between port and starboa rd stanchions.

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During the aircraft arrestment, when the aircraft contacts the barricade, the wings engage the nylon webbing, which transmits the arresting force to the barricade engine below deck and stops the aircraft safely. The V-1 division works in conjunction with the V-2 division in the initial preparations of the barricade. They set down the deck plates and ensure that they are locked in place, pull out the webbing, and direct all hands in this process. AIRCRAFT HANDLING SIGNALS The aircraft-handling signals discussed in this section (Figure 11-4) are used by all aviation branches of the United States Armed Forces. You, the beginner, must first learn (memorize) these signals thoroughly. Then, you must practice these signals to ensure precise execution. If you drop one arm to indicate application of a brake on a turn, snap the arm out briskly. If you stretch your arms out in rendering a signal, open them wide. When practical, keep the hands well separated. It is better to exaggerate a signal than to make it in such a manner that it may be misinterpreted. Aboard carriers, the "emergency stop" signal is used more frequently than on shore stations. You must remember that this signal is meant for emergencies only. Do not use it as a routine stop signal. It is sometimes necessary for the director to give a "come ahead slowly" signal in close q uarters. The director should execute this signal by alternately giving the standard "come ahead" signal with slow movem ent of the arms, followed by the stop signal.

NOTE The "emergency stop" signal is mandatory. All other director hand signals are advisory when directing aircraft. 11-10 Figure 11-4 — General aircraft-handling signals.

Figure 11-5 — Taxi guidance wand. During night operations, the plane director uses two lighted taxi guidance wands (Figure 11-5) in giving handling signals. During night flight operations, only the prescribed signal wands may be use d, and then only by authorized personnel. The wands are different colors and/or shapes for the personnel designated to use them. The different colors and/or shapes of the cones on the wands are a safety factor. The colors/shapes prevent personnel from misinterpreting a signal that could cause damage to the aircraft or injury to personnel. Table 11-2 lists the personnel authorized to use wands by wand color, the number of wands, and the type. Other personnel that are involved in night flight operations must use a standard flashlight with a red filter. Wands are used at night in the same way that hands are used for day signaling. Night signals that differ from day signals are also sho wn in Figure 11-4. In operations requiring taxiing of aircraft, directors are usually stationed at intervals of 50 to 100 fe et along the flight deck. The director must be in a position that will give the pilot an unobstructed view of the signals. The usual stance of an e xperienced director ready to take over control of an a ircraft is with one arm high overhead and palm inward. This not only aids the pilot in recognizing the director, but it also puts the director in a position to render practically any taxi signal with a minimum of movement. The director retains control of t he aircraft only while it is in his control area. He then passes control to the next director in line on the deck. For more information on aircraft hand signals refer to NAVAIR-00-80T-113, Aircraft Signals NATOPS Manual.

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Table 11-2 — Taxi Signal Wand Identification PERSONNEL COLOR NO TYPE* Aviation Fuels Checker Amber 1 Stubby Catapult Hookup Petty Officer White 1 Stubby Catapult Safety Observer (ICCS) Red 1 Standard Green 1 Standard Flight Deck Officer and Aircraft Directors Amber 2 Standard Hook Runner Red 1 Stubby Launching and Arresting Gear Officer/Helicopter LSE/LSO Red 1 Standard Green 1 Standard Ordnance Arming Crew Red 1 Stubby Banded** Ordnance Arming/Safety Supervisor Red 2 Standard Banded*** Plane Captain Blue 2 Standard Squadron Aircraft Inspector Blue 1 Stubby * Standard and stubby denote cone shape. Standard denotes full length cones; stubby is a modified cone providing 3 inches of lighted cone. Any suitable battery and switch housing is authorized if cone is brightly lighted. All signal wands/flashlights must be equipped with heat-shrinkable sleeving to prevent possible cone separation. ** One 3/4 inch band on the cone (plastic electrician's tape is recommended). *** Two 3/4 inch bands spaced equidistant on the cone (plastic electrician's tape is recommended). SECURING AIRCRAFT ABOARD CARRIERS In general, methods for securing aircraft and mobile support equipment are specific to particular naval aviation ships. CVN carriers embark mostly fixed-wing jet, turboprop, and helicopter aircraft. LHD, LHA, LPH, and LPD class amphibious assault ships embark vertical short takeoff and landing (V/STOL ) aircraft, such as the V-22 Osprey, AV-8 Harrier, and a variety of helicopters. This section does not differentiate between the different types of ships. The importance of properly securing and handling aircraft and mobile support equipment aboard carriers cannot be overstressed. It is of the utmost importance that they are secured in a manner that prevents fore and aft and athwart ship (side to side) movement. The reasons for this are threefold: 1. The pitch and roll of the ship, caused by heavy seas. 2. The list of the ship, caused by maneuvering, particularly when making high-speed turns. 3. The parking of aircraft on the flight and hangar decks with a minimum of clearance between them. 11-12

Adjustable chock assemblies are used to block the main landing gear of all aircraft and wheels on support equipment. The chocks should be in position at all times when the aircraft is not being moved and support equipment is not being driven. They should be removed only upon command from a plane director. Both ends of the chock should be snugly against the wheel with the adjustable end toward the rear of the plane. This ensures easy removal when engines are turning up and the wheel is set hard against the forward end of the chock.

Fittings are provided on all aircraft for attaching tie-downs. These fittings are usually located on each of the landing gear struts. On some aircraft additional fittings may be found on the fuselage. In all circumstances, tie-down chains are attached to each of these points when the aircraft is being secured. Tie-down assemblies are used to secure aircraft and support equipment aboard carriers. These assemblies are equipped with attachments for deck fittings (pad eyes). Deck fittings are provided on both the flight and hangar decks for securing aircraft. Methods of securing aircraft or support equipment and the quantity of tie-down assemblies will vary, depending upon the type of aircraft, equipment, scheduled operations, and weather conditions. No rmal Weather Conditions In general, the following procedures apply when securing aircraft under normal conditions: 1. Plane captains of landing aircraft stand by with tie-downs on the flight deck in a designated area. They join their aircraft as they are being parked. If an aircraft is moved to the hangar bay below, its plane captain should board the elevator with it if he ca n do so safely. 2. Aircraft-handling crews stand by in a designated area during recoveries and act as chockmen while aircraft are being taxied and parked. They put on the initial tie-downs and are assisted by the plane captain when possible. 3. When the aircraft reaches the final spot, the director will signal the pilot of the aircraft to lower its tailhook. This automatically straightens the nosewheel to ce nter. Some aircraft must have the nosewheel aligned to center manually. 4. The plane captain connects the ground wire and installs wing fold jury struts, parking harness and batten boards, engine and crew station covers, and any tie-downs needed in addition to the initial tie-downs put on by the aircraft-handling crews. Detailed procedures for securing a specific aircraft are found in the maintenance instruction manual (MIM) for that aircraft. Heavy Weather Procedures The procedure for securing aircraft during heavy weather differs very little from that used in n ormal weather. The main difference is that more tie-downs are used. All flight control surfaces are secured with battens, and controls inside the aircraft are secured. Figure 11-6 shows the tie-down arrangement for an F/A-18, depending on the size of the aircraft the number of chains for heavy NOTE You should exercise caution when using wheel chocks. If aircraft chocks are not loosened during fueling operations, they will be close to impossible to remove after the aircraft is fueled because of the added weight. The opposite occurs when the aircraft is defueled; chocks must then be tightened. 11-13

Figure 11-6 — F/A-18 tie-down arrangement. weather requirements will vary. For more information, refer to specific aircraft Maintenance Instruction Manual (MIM). When extremely heavy weather is anticipated, as many aircraft as possible are spotted on the hangar deck. The remainder are spotted in the fly 2 (center) and fly 3 (aft) areas of the flight deck. Avoid securing aircraft athwart ship and in the heavy weather spot. Aircraft remaining on the flight deck should be spotted inboard along either side of the center line of the deck. Leave a clear area around the perimeter of the flight deck. If possible, spread the wings on the aircraft that are spotted on the flight deck. For special instructions on securing an individual aircraft, refer to the aircraft's specific MIM. When the ship is not at flight quarters or during heavy weather conditions, the Air Department is required to maintain a security/integrity watch on the flight deck and hangar deck to ensure that each aircraft remains properly secured. The watch must be especially alert for loose or broken jury struts, tie-downs, battens, chocks, engine intake/exhaust and canopy covers, for any leakage, or for hazardous conditions. Extreme caution is necessary when you handle aircraft in heavy weather.

Cold Weather Procedures Handling aircraft during cold weather operations is extremely difficult. Keep as many aircraft on the hangar deck as is possible during extremely cold weather. Keep the flight deck clear of ice and snow. The following methods for snow and ice removal are often used:  Mobile equipment removal —some aircraft tow tractors may be fitted with snowplow blades or with rattan or wire rotary brushes. CAUTION In severe cold weather environments, do not lock the canopies of aircraft parked in the landing area. Canopies will freeze "closed" and prevent brake rider protection. 11-14

Figure 11-7 — NWC-4/5 universal wheel chock. Figure 11-8 — NWC-4/5 universal wheel chock installed. Figure 11-9 — TD-1A and TD-1B chain-type tie-down assemblies.  Manual removal —conventional methods include brooms, crowbars, shovels, wooden mallets, and scrapers. Use compressed air to blow snow from pockets. Use firemain water at 100 psi and steam lances for undercutting ice. Use deck scrapers and auxiliary hot-air heaters to clear flight-deck equipment, such as wires, sheaves, arresting gear, and elevators, of ice. Normal deck procedures are used in cold weather, but considerably more time is required because of the excessive hazards involved. Use battens on control surfaces. Jury struts and flight station covers are recommended. Tie down the controls inside the aircraft to eliminate the chance of movement of outer control surfaces. Aircraft on ice or snow should always be moved slowly. Avoid using the brakes as much as possible when turning aircraft.

AIRCRAFT-HANDLING ACCESSORIES In addition to self-powered equipment, several important handling accessories are required for safe and efficient handling of aircraft. These accessories are discussed in the following text. Aircraft Wheel Chocks Several types of aircraft wheel chocks are used by the Navy. Of these, the NWC-4/5 polyurethane universal wheel chock (Figure 11-7) is the most common, particularly aboard aircraft carriers. On sho re stations you will find two polyurethane or wooden blocks joined by nylon or manila line with different lengths to accommodate different aircraft wheels sizes. Figure 11-8 shows a wheel chock insta lled. 11-15

Figure 11-10 — Close-up showing proper installation of the TD-1A assembly. Figure 11-11 — Aero full power tie-down assembly. Figure 11-12 — MXU-657/W aircraft restraint. TD-1A and TD-1B Tie-Down Assemblies The quick-release TD-1A and TD-1B tie-down chain assemblies (Figure 11-9) are now used almost exclusively aboard ship and ashore. These assemblies consist of a locking and release mechanism, tension bar, adjustable tension nut, and a chain with a hook at one end. Figure 11-10 shows a close-up of the proper installation. Both assemblies are available in two different lengths, 9 foot and 14 foot, and are fully adjustable from a foot and a half to full extension. A/B Tie-Down Assembly This tie-down is called the Aero full-power tie-down asse mbly (Figure 11-11). It is commonly called the A/B (afterburner) tie-down. It consists of a deck attachment fitting, a safety lock retainer, a chain, and a coupler that fits the aircraft holdback fitting. This assembly has a working load of 30,000 pounds. It weighs about 102 pounds and has no adjustments to lengthen or shorten it. It can be modified by joining two tie-downs together with a dummy link for aircraft requiring more length A newer version of the A/B tie-down, called the MXU- 657/W aircraft restraint, has a different deck attachment fitting, and is shown in Figure 11-12. Otherwise, it is identical. Special high-strength deck fittings are installed aboard ships and at shore stations in designated engine run-up areas. Specific A/B tie-down instructions for each type of aircraft are contained in the specific MIM.

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11-17 Figure 11-13 — Adjustable length towbar. Figure 11-14 — Tow bar attachment. Aircraft Tow Bars Two general classes of tow bars are used in naval aviation—those adaptable to only one type of aircraft and those adaptable to more than one type.

The universal aircraft tow bar, Model Adjustable Length Towbar (ALBAR) (Figure 11-13) is the type of tow bar most commonly used by the Navy today. It is available in four different models and lengths. It is used to tow and position aircraft weighing up to 90,000 pounds. The ALBAR is designed for towing aircraft that have nose or tailwheel axle holes, or fuselage or landing gear tow rings (Figure 11-14), and it can be configured to accommodate different aircraft. For more information on handling accessories, refer to NAVAIR 00-80T-96, Support Equipment Common, Basic Handling and Safety Manual, or the "General Information and Servicing" section of the MIM for any given aircraft. CAUTION Before you attempt to tow an aircraft, be sure that the tow bar tensioning chain is under maximum tension when the axle pins are used. When using the tow hooks, ensure the locking pins are closed.

GENERAL FLIGHT DECK SAFETY PRECAUTIONS The ship's commanding officer is responsible at all times for the safety of embarked aircraft and personnel. The commanding officer or officer in charge of the aircraft squadron/detachment and the pilots of individual aircraft are directly responsible for the safety of assigned aircraft and personnel. Ultimately, however, safety is the responsibility of all hands. Nearly all aircraft-handling accidents/incidents or personal injury/death are the result of poor training and supervision, lack of awareness, and/or disregard of h andling instructions. Some of the safety precautions that could prevent dangerous and costly accidents during flight operations aboard carriers are as follows:  Never operate or allow personnel under your supervision to o perate any machinery or equipment when not thoroughly checked out and qualified on all safety and operating instructions.  The deck is considered foul any time unauthorized personnel are in or around aircraft parked in the safe-parking area aft of the island.  While flight operations are being conducted, no personnel except those authorized and required may be in the catwalks, in the guntubs, on the flight deck, in the catapult or arresting gear engine rooms, or in the pilot's landing aid television (PLAT) lens room without the express permission of the air officer.  Personnel should never stand or otherwise block entrances to the island structure or exits leading off the catwalks.  Personnel should not turn their backs on aircraft landing or taxiing out of the arresting gear.  While taxiing aircraft out of the arresting gear, directors must be aware of the activities of the hook runner, tiller-bar man, and the wing walkers.  While directing aircraft, the director must be in p lain view of the pilot at all times. If the pilot loses sight of his director, he must STOP immediately.  No director should give signals to a pilot who is being controlled by another director EXCEPT in an attempt to avert an accident.  Never allow yourself to become complacent to the point of permitting unsafe conditions to exist. Complacency is one of the major causes of aircraft accidents/incidents in handling aircraft.  Make sure that the brakes are manned before you move an aircraft.

 Use the proper tow bar for the aircraft that is being moved.  Use wing and tail walkers in all movements.  Use chockmen at all times in case the aircraft is to be stopped without brakes or in the instance where brakes fail. Use chockmen when you back an aircraft to the deck-edge spots.  Never move an aircraft when there is doubt as to clearance. NOTE If an aircraft with inoperative brakes is to be respotted, the cockpit must NOT be manned, and the chockmen must be in position to chock the main wheels instantly when ordered. 11-18

 Watch for unexpected ship movement that may have a bearing on aircraft being moved.  Be extremely cautious when you handle aircraft on and off of elevators. There is always the danger of losing one over the side because they are at the extreme edge of the deck.  Make sure the elevator is in the full up or down position before you move an aircraft on or off it.  Because of the small confines of the hangar deck, it is of the utmost importance that aircraft be moved with extreme caution. Ensure that hydraulic brake fluid pressure is available and is sufficient to safely accomplish the handling operation.  Handling of other equipment around aircraft should always be performed with utmost care.  Unlock the nose or tail wheel (if applicable) before you move an aircraft.  Be particularly careful when you move a jet that has b een started. Ensure that all personnel are clear of the intake and jet blast.  Stay clear of the launching and landing areas unless you are part of that operation.  Stay alert when you are working around aircraft. There is never room for carelessness, daydreaming, or skylarking on the flight deck.  Keep constant vigilance for coworkers. This helps to avoid accidents.  Ensure that aircraft wheel chocks and tie-down chains are always used whenever an aircraft is not being moved.  Always wear articles of flight-deck clothing in the following manner: o Helmets on and buckled, goggles down over eyes. o Flight-deck jerseys on with sleeves rolled down. o Life vest on and fastened. o Safety shoes on.  Be alert for slick deck areas. Clean spillage from the deck as so on as possible.  Aircraft with wings folded are not to be sp otted, towed, or taxied immediately behind a jet blast deflector when another aircraft is at high-power turnup on the catapult.  You must strictly observe all safety precautions when working around aircraft equipped with an ejection seat. Accidental actuation of the firing mechanism can result in death or serious injury to anyone in the crew station area.  Beware of jet blast, props, and rotors. AIRCRAFT HANDLING OPERATIONS ASHORE The methods and procedures for handling aircraft ashore are similar to those afloat. When an air wing or squadron is shore based, it operates on air stations that have paved spotting areas. The area where a particular group of aircraft is spotted or parked is referred to as "the line." Aircraft are spotted on the line for servicing, loading, maintenance, and checking for operational readiness. It is the responsibility of the personnel assigned to the line crew to direct and spot the aircraft. The line is spotted following the flight schedule instructions. Aircraft must be spotted for engine turnup, taxiing, or towing without endangering other aircraft on the line. In directing an aircraft that is taxiing from the line, the director should remain in control of the aircraft until it is clear of other aircraft or obstructions in the spotting area. Incoming aircraft should be met at the edge of the spotting area and directed to the appropriate spot. 11-19

Transient aircraft often require assistance in taxiing from the runway to the spotting area. An appropriate vehicle that has the words "follow me" displayed in large letters is used. The vehicle meets the aircraft at the end of the runway or an intersection to the runway and leads it to the spotting area or flight line. Personnel assigned to flight line duty should prepare for possible emergencies by becoming thoroughly familiar with the various types of fire-fighting equipment available on the line. They must know their location and capabilities and ensure, by frequent inspection, that they are always ready for use. The use of standard color-coded fire extinguishers promotes greater safety and lessens the chances of error, confusion, or inaction in time of emergency. Coding distinguishes flight-line fire extinguishers from building fire equipment. The type of extinguisher, together with the class of fire it extinguishes, must be painted on a 6-inch color band. The letters are black and at least 1 inch in height. The 6-inch band around the top of the extinguisher should be painted as follows:  Carbon Dioxide (CO2) ....... Yellow  AFFF Type ........................ Silver or white  Purple K Powder ............... Purple  Halon ................................. Fluorescent yellow Carts for handling the 50-pound extinguisher bottles should be painted the same color as the e xtinguisher band. The containers or holders for the other fire extinguishers located on the line may also be painted the same color as the extinguisher band. Multiengine Aircraft Handling Because each type of multiengine aircraft requires slightly different handling procedures, this discussion is limited to general handling procedures. Specific handling procedures for specific aircraft may be found in the "General Information and Servicing" section of the MIM. Many multiengine aircraft have a means of steering the nosewheel from the crew station. While this provides more effective control when the aircraft is taxied, it also limits the radius of turns. When an aircraft equipped with crew station steering is being directed, allow sufficient space as a turn is being made. The nosewheel steering system should be disengaged, if possible, when an aircraft is towed by the nosewheel. Special towing equipment is provided for each type of multiengine aircraft. This consists of a nosewheel towing and steering bar for forward towing and a main gear tow bar or adapter for aft towing. The nosewheel bar is used to steer the aircraft when towing it from aft. Large aircraft should be towed slowly and carefully. Sudden starts, stops, and turns must be avoided. When an aircraft is towed, the brakes should be engaged only in an emergency. If a quick stop is necessary, the brakes of the tractor and aircraft should be applied at the same time (the aircraft move director coordinates this action by blowing a whistle). In addition to the above handling instructions, the following safety precautions should be observed:  During towing operations, have a qualified operator in the pilot's seat to operate the brakes when necessary. Ensure that there is sufficient hydraulic pressure for brake operation.  When aircraft are moved in close spaces, a taxi director and sufficient walkers should be placed to provide centralized control and to ensure clearance of obstructions.  If the aircraft is equipped with a tail wheel, unlock the tail wheel before the aircraft is moved. 11-20

 Ensure that the landing gear safety lockpins or down locks are installed before the aircraft is towed.  Do not turn the nosewheel beyond the nosewheel turn limits. Structural damage will result. Securing Aircraft Ashore The parking areas on air stations are usually equipped with tie-down pad eyes, which are sunk into the surface of the concrete aprons on the "line." One end of the tie-down chains or securing line assemblies are attached to the aircraft tie-down fittings, and the other end is secured to the pad eyes and properly adjusted.

The fundamental rules for securing aircraft ashore are as follows: 1. Direct or locate the aircraft to a protected spot. 2. Park the aircraft into the wind if possible. 3. Place chocks both in front of and behind each main landing gear wheel. 4. Ground the aircraft. 5. Place all controls in neutral position and lock or secure. 6. Tie the aircraft down. 7. Install the protective covers. 8. Secure propellers and rotor blades as req uired. 9. Ensure brakes are set.

When high winds threaten, move the aircraft inside the hangar if possible. If not, ensure tie-downs or lines and anchorages are doubled and control surfaces are secured with battens. Multiengine aircraft are usually tied down at six points. These points are the landing gear, the tail, and each wing. Detailed information concerning securing a particular aircraft may be found in the "General Information and Servicing" section of the MIM. CAUTION When you are securing aircraft with manila line, leave sufficient slack for shrinkage that occurs when the line becomes wet. NOTE Most aircraft are equipped with their own special securing accessory equipment, such as intake, exhaust, canopy, and external flight instrument covers, propeller or rotor blade restraints and tie-downs, flight control and landing gear lock pins, etc. CAUTION Do not install intake or exhaust engine covers when the engine is hot. 11-21

Figure 11-15 — Helicopter tie-down configuration. HELICOPTER HANDLING Helicopters are used on CVN/LHD/LHA/LPH/LPD type vessels. They are also used on destroyers, fast frigates, replenishing ships, cruisers, and, of c ourse, shore stations. There are areas that differ be tween handling fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters. Unique flight characteristics and aircraft operation require special handling procedures. Hel icopter Tie-Down and Securing Procedures With the exception of the main rotor blade tie-downs, helicopter tie-downs and securing procedures are similar to those for conventional fixed-wing aircraft. Tie-downs for the main rotor blades are used to prevent damage that might be caused by gusty and turbulent wind conditions when the blades are in a spread position. This type of tie-down usually co nsists of a canvas boot with an attached length of manila line; however, some helicopter rotor blades have special fittings and attachment accessories to accomplish this task. The canvas boot is placed over the tip of the rotor blade, and the boot line is then secured either to a d eck fitting or to an aircraft fitting on the helicopter itself. An example of a helicopter tie-down configuration is given in Figure 11-15. Always consult the applicable MIM’s "General Information and Servicing" section for detailed securing instructions for a specific type of helicopter.

NOTE Rotor blade securing lines should be taut enough to hold the blades without applying excessive bending force. Check lines for security and shrinkage when wet, and readjust lines when required. 11-22

Figure 11-16 — Helicopter hand signals. Hand Signals Hand signals shown in Figure 11-16 are used when helicopters are directed. As you can see, they differ greatly from fixed-wing aircraft. The director, called a Landing Signalman Enlisted (LSE), is normally stationed on a 45-degree bearing to the portside of the helicopter if the pilot in control is in the left seat, and to the starboard side if the pilot in control is in the right seat. When you are acting as LSE, you should position yourself upwind of the area in which the helicopter is to be launched and in a similar position for a landing.

NOTE The helicopter hand signals "wave-off" and "hold" are mandatory; all others are advisory in nature when directing aircraft. CAUTION Aircraft engines, auxiliary power plant starts, blade spread/fold, and rotor engagement must not be accomplished in wind conditions exceeding the individual aircraft's NATOPS limitations. 11-23

Figure 11-17 — Shipboard helicopter landing spot (typical). Helicopter Flight Operations Carrier flight decks and air station runways or taxiways have marked helicopter landing areas that are controlled by PRI- FLY (afloat) and the control tower (ashore) for helicopter takeoff and landings. See Figures 11-17 and 11-18. The LSE, under the supervision of the air officer, is responsible for visually signaling to the helicopter, thus assisting the pilot in making a safe takeoff and/or landing on the ship. He or she is responsible for directing the pilot to the desired deck spot and for ensuring general safety conditions of the flight deck, to include control of the flight deck crew. Flight deck operations with rotors engaged are particularly hazardous to personnel. The tail rotor of some helicopters revolves in a vertical plane fairly close to the deck. In addition, the possibility always exists that the main rotor blades may strike the deck during engagement or disengagement of the rotor system due to the wind being out of parameters or hurling pieces of debris. Because of this hazard, flight deck personnel should be kept to the minimum needed for the operation. Once the proper commands (Table 11-3) are given to the flight deck officer and the flight deck lighting has b een activated from PRI-FLY (Table 11-4), the LSE supervises and is responsible for the following:  Launch and recovery operations.  Chocks and tie-downs (as required).  Fire bottle and guard (posted).  Auxiliary power plant start/shut down.  Clearances around the aircraft.  Rotor blade spread/fold.  Engine start/shut down.  Rotor engagement/disengagement.  The movement of all personnel around the aircraft when loading or unloading troops, cargo, or fueling.  All other activities around the launch or landing area.  External material condition and security of the aircraft. For detailed information on shipboard V/STOL aircraft operating procedures, you should refer to the Naval Warfare Publication Shipboard V/STOL Aircraft Operating Procedures, NWP-63-1; the LHD/LHA/LPH/LPD NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-106; and the Shipboard Helicopter Operating Procedures, NWP-42, latest revision. 11-24

Figure 11-18 — Air station helipad identification and perimeter markings.

11-25

Table 11-3 —Flight Deck Commands

11-26

Table 11-4 —Deck Status Lights/Rotating Beacon Signals for Helicopter Operations EVOLUTION DECK STATUS LIGHTS/ROTATING BEACON SIGNAL Start Engines Red Engage Rotors Amber Launch Green Recovery Green Disengage Rotors Amber Shut Down Red HELICOPTER SAFETY PRECAUTIONS During aircraft operations afloat or ashore, the following helicopter safety precautions should be observed:  Do not approach or depart a helicopter without direction from the LSE.  Do not approach or depart a helicopter while the rotors are being engaged or disengaged.  Helicopters should not be taxied on the flight deck.  Helicopters should not be towed or pushed while the rotors are engaged.  Helicopters should not be launched or recovered and rotors should not engage or disengage while the ship is in a turn or the wind is out of parameters.  A helicopter should not be flown over any other aircraft during takeoff and landing.  Never approach a tail rotor type helicopter from the rear while the rotors are turning.  Personnel required to be in the area of operating helicopters should exercise extreme caution and observe the signals or directions from the aircraft director.

11-27

End of Chapter 11 Line Operations and Safety Review Questions 11-1. When aircraft are towed, the towing speed should never be faster than the slowest person can walk or exceed…….mph.

A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10

11-2. What colors are most support equipment painted?

A. Blue and/or white with reflective tape strips on th e side. B. Yellow and/or red with reflective tape strips on the corners. C. Yellow and/or white with reflective tape strips on the corners. D. White and/or blue with reflective tape strips on th e side.

11-3. What color flight deck jersey does t he arresting gear crew wear?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. Yellow

11-4. What color flight deck jersey does t he Liquid Oxygen (LOX) crew wear?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White

11-5. What color flight deck jersey does t he aircraft handling crew and chock men wear?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White

11-6. What color flight deck jersey do ordnance personnel wear?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White

11-28

11-7. How many hours before the launch is f light quarters usually sounded?

A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 3 C. 4 to 5 D. 5 to 6

11-8. How many minutes before launch time do flight crews perform their final checks to start the engines upon the signal from primary fly control (PRI-FLY)?

A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30

11-9. Whi ch of the following is part of the emergency recovery equipment used for the emergency arrestment (stopping) of an aircraft that cannot make a normal (pendant) arrested landing?

A. A rresting hook B. Barricade C. Catwalks D. Number 3 wire

11-10. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: arms above head in v ertical position with palms facing inward?

A. Affirmative (all clear) B. Negative (not clear) C. Proceed to next marshaler D. This way

11-11. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: arms down, fists closed, thu mbs extended inwards, swing arms from extended position inwards?

A. Affirmative (all clear) B. Insert chocks C. Install down locks D. Remove chocks

11-12. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: either arm and hand level w ith shoulder, hand moving across the throat, palm down; hand is moved sideways, arm remaining bent, other arm pointing to engine?

A. Cut engine B. Disconnect ground electric power C. S low down engine D. Start ground electric power

11-29

11-13. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: describe large figure eight with one hand and point to the area with the other hand?

A. Cut engine B. Disconnect ground electric power C. Fir e D. Engage nosegear steering

11-14. What is the meaning of the following day time helicopter hand signal: arms extended ho rizontally sideways, palms downward?

A. Hover B. Move downward C. Move upward D. Move to left

11-15. What is the meaning of the following day time helicopter hand signal: waving arms over the he ad?

A. Land B. Lower wheels C. Rem ove blade tiedowns D. Wave off

11-16. During cold weather procedures jury struts and crew station covers are …….

A. Mandatory. B. Optional. C. Necessary. D. Recommended.

11-17. What is designed for towing aircraft that have nose or tailwheel axle holes?

A. ALBAR B. TD-1A C. TD-1B D. Wheel chock

11-18. What is used to tie down aircraft aboard ship?

A. ALBAR B. TD-1A/B C. TD-22C D. Wheel chock

11-30

11-19. Which of the following is a true statement if an aircraft with inoperative brakes is to be respotted?

A. The crew station must be manned. B. The crew station must NOT be manned. C. The move crew will have double the personnel. D. The move crew will have triple the personnel.

11-20. What color is the 6-inch band around the top of a fire extinguisher that signifies it is Halon?

A. Purple B. Fluorescent yellow C. Silver D. Yellow

11-21. What color is the 6-inch band around the top of a fire extinguisher that signifies it is AFFF?

A. Purple B. Fluorescent yellow C. Silver D. Yellow

11-22. What color is the 6-inch band around the top of a fire extinguisher that signifies it is CO2?

A. Purple B. Fluorescent yellow C. Silver D. Yellow

11-23. What color light/rotating beacon signal is used to signify recovery?

A. Amber B. B lue C. Green D. Red

11-24. What color light/rotating beacon signal is used to signify start engines?

A. A mber B. B lue C. Green D. Red

11-25. Who should you get direction from before approaching or departing a helicopter?

A. Blue shirt B. Landing Signals Enlisted (LSE) C. Landing Signals Officer (LSO) D. Y ellow shirt

11-31

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11-32

CHAPTER 12 AIRCREW SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT Emergency conditions arise quickly and leave little or no time for preparation. You must know what survival equipment is available and how to use it before the need arises. You can receive aircrew survival training in a number of places. The first place is the aviator's equipment shop, commonly called the "parachute loft" or just the "paraloft." There you will meet the personnel that rig, pack, inspect, and maintain all Navy survival equipment. These personnel are members of the Aircrew Survival Equipmentman rating and are commonly called "parachute riggers." In the parachute loft, you can get first-hand information on the different items that are covered in this chapter. The next place is in flight physiology. There you will find the medical people who are responsible for survival training. You may have an opportunity to see or even take a ride in the pressure chamber. The pressure chamber allows you to use oxygen equipment under the atmospheric pressure conditions encountered at high altitudes and to see how your body reacts to those changes. The multiplace egress device is used in many areas. This device is used to simulate the problems involved in ditching an aircraft at sea, day or night. This training teaches you how to escape from a sinking aircraft and how to use inflatable life rafts and life preservers. LEARNING OBJECTIVES When you have completed this chapter, you will be able to do the following: 1. State the types, characteristics, and uses of flight clothing. 2. Explain the history, components, and types of parachute assemblies. 3. Describe the different types of life preservers. 4. Identify types of life rafts and their uses. 5. List survival items and rescue equipment. FLIGHT CLOTHING Naval aircrew protective equipment is designed to meet the extreme stresses of a combat environment. It also provides fire protection and camouflage, and has design features for escape and evasion. The wide range of environmental conditions in which aircraft must operate requires a compromise between comfort and the high level of protection needed. Protection is the first priority. Postcrash fire and cold water exposure are two critical areas where the survival requirements are more important than maintaining the best cockpit flying conditions. Flight clothing is designed to minimize injury from these hazards. Aircrew personal protective equipment, such as flight clothing, plays an important role in the safety and survival of pilots and aircrewmen. It protects personnel from the elements and provides adequate comfort for efficient mission performance. The primary purpose of flight clothing and equipment is to protect you from a variety of hazards. No single item of clothing or equipment can cover all the potential requirements. The Navy uses both general flight gear and specialized protective equipment for protection and comfort in cold and hot climates. General flight gear consists of flight coveralls, boots, gloves, etc.; specialized protective equipment consists of Anti-gravity (anti-g ) protection coveralls and anti-exposure equipment. 12-1

Figure 13-2 — Chain reaction. Figure 13-3 — Fire tetrahedron and triangle. Two terms you need to understand about fires are the fire point and the flash point. The fire point of a substance is the lowest temperature at which its vapors can be ignited and will continue to burn. At this temperature, the vapor will ignite spontaneously in the air. Also, substances do not have to be heated to this ignition temperature throughout in order to ignite. The flash point of a substance is the temperature at which the substance gives off enough vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the substance's surface. An ignitable mixture is a mixture within the explosive range. The mixture is capable of spreading a flame away from the source of ignition when ignited. For example, fuel will spontaneously ignite when a portion of it (or its vapors) is exposed to temperatures around 500 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) (ignition temperature). It is capable of being touched off by a match or spark at temperatures down to -5 °F (fire point). It will also flash across the surface at temperatures from −5 °F down to −45 °F (flash point). From these examples, you can readily see that fuel has a low flash point and is easily ignited. Fuel is a constant fire hazard around aircraft. A spark, heat caused by friction, or an electrical discharge can supply enough heat to cause fuel to flash. Classes of Fire Different types of fires are combated by different means. It is important that you know how to identify the various types of fires and understand why each type must be combated in a specific way. 13-2

Class A Class A fires occur in combustible materials, such as bedding, mattresses, books, cloth, and any matter that produces an ash. All fires of this class leave embers, which are likely to rekindle if air comes in contact with them. Class A fires must not be considered extinguished until the entire mass has been cooled below its ignition temperature. Smothering (removing the oxygen) is not effective for class A fires because it does not lower the temperature of the smoldering embers below the surface. The extinguishing agents most effective for class A fires are solid water stream, both high- and low- velocity fog, carbon dioxide (CO2), and water immersion. Class B Class B fires occur with flammable liquid substances, such as gasoline, jet fuels, paints, grease, and any petroleum-based product. These and other combustible substances do not leave embers or ashes. Class B fires are extinguished by providing a barrier between the burning substance and oxygen necessary for combustion. Chemical and mechanical foams produce such a barrier and are known as permanent smothering agents, but their effect is only temporary. The application must be renewed if there is any danger of reigniting. The extinguishing agents recommended for combating class B fires are CO2, Purple-K-Powder (PKP), Halon 1211, and aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF).

Class C Class C fires are energized electrical fires that are attacked at prescribed distances by using nonconductive agents such as CO2 and Halon 1211. The most effective tactic is to de-energize the system and handle the fire as a class A fire. When fires are not deep seated, clean agents that pose no cleanup problem, such as Halon 1211 or CO2, are the preferred extinguishing agents.

Class D Class D fires occur with combustible metals, such as magnesium and titanium. Water in large quantities, such as high velocity fog, is the recommended extinguishing agent. When water is applied to burning class D materials, there may be small explosions. The firefighter should apply water from a safe distance or from behind shelter. Metal fires on board ships are commonly associated with aircraft wheel structures. EXTINGUISHING AGENTS Many materials may be used as firefighting agents. The primary agents discussed in the following paragraphs are the most extensively used aboard naval ships. Water Water is a cooling agent (Figure 13-4), and on board ship, the sea provides an inexhaustible supply. If the surface temperature of a fire can be lowered below the fuel's ignition temperature, the fire will NOTE Water by itself is NOT recommended for use on class B fires. WARNING Water in any form, particularly salt water, is dangerous when used on electrical equipment. 13-3

Figure 13-4 — Water. Figure 13-5 — AFFF. Figure 13-6 — CO2. be extinguished. Water is most efficient when it absorbs enough heat to raise its temperature to 212 °F (100 degrees Celsius [°C]) or boiling point. At this temperature, the seawater will absorb still more heat until it changes to steam. The steam carries away the heat, which cools the surface temperature. Water in the form of fog is very effective for firefighting purposes. Additionally, water fog can provide protection to firefighters from heat. However, the fog must be applied directly to the area to be cooled if its benefits are to be realized. Water in the form of a straight stream (also called solid stream) is used to reach into smoke-filled spaces or areas at a distance from the firefighter. When a straight stream is needed as an extinguishing agent, it should be directed into the seat of the fire. For maximum cooling, the water must come in direct contact with the burning material. A straight stream is best used to break up and penetrate materials. Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF) AFFF is composed of synthetically produced materials similar to liquid detergents. These film-forming agents are capable of forming water solution films on the surface of flammable liquids (Figure 13-5). AFFF concentrate is nontoxic and biodegradable in diluted form. When proportioned with water, AFFF provides three fire-extinguishing advantages. 1. An aqueous film is formed on the surface of the fuel that prevents the escape of the fuel vapors. 2. The layer effectively excludes oxygen from the fuel surface. 3. The water content of the foam provides a cooling effect. The primary use of AFFF is to extinguish burning flammable or combustible liquid spill fires (class B). AFFF has excellent penetrating characteristics and is superior to water in extinguishing class A fires. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) CO2 is an inert gas and extinguishes fires by smothering them (Figure 13-6). CO2 is about 13-4

Figure 13-7 — Halon 1211. Figure 13-8 — PKP. 1.5 times heavier than air, which makes it a suitable extinguishing agent because it tends to settle and blanket the fire. CO2 is a dry, noncorrosive gas, which is inert when in contact with most substances and will not leave a residue or damage machinery or electrical equipment. CO2 is a nonconductor of electricity regardless of voltage and can be safely used in fighting fires that would present the hazard of electric shock. CO2 extinguishes the fire by diluting and displacing its oxygen supply. If gaseous CO2 is directed into a fire so that sufficient oxygen to support combustion is no longer available, the flames will die out. CO2 has limited cooling capabilities and may not cool the fuel below its ignition temperature. It is more likely than other extinguishing agents to allow reflash. Therefore, the firefighter must remember to stand by with additional backup extinguishers.

Halon 1211 Halon is a halogenated hydrocarbon (Figure 13-7). Halon 1211, known chemically as bromochlorodifluoromethane, is colorless and has a sweet smell. Halon attacks the fire by inhibiting the chemical chain reaction. Halon decomposes upon contact with flames or hot surfaces above 900 °F (482 °C). Halon 1211 is used for twin agent (AFFF/Halon 1211) applications on board flight and hangar deck mobile firefighting equipment. For flight and hangar deck firefighting procedures, you should refer to NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14. Potassium Bicarbonate (Purple-K- Powder or PKP) Potassium bicarbonate (PKP) is a dry chemical principally used as a firefighting agent for flammable liquid fires (Figure 13-8). When PKP is applied to fire, the dry chemical extinguishes the flame by breaking the combustion chain. PKP does not have cooling capabilities on fire. PKP is highly effective in extinguishing flammable liquid (class B) fires. Although PKP can be used on electrical (class C) fires, it will leave a residue that may be hard to NOTE CO2 is not an effective extinguishing agent for fires in materials that produce their own oxygen supply, such as aircraft parachute flares, or fires involving reactive metals, such as magnesium and titanium. 13-5

Figure 13-9 — Typical firehose station. clean. Also, when combined with moisture, it may corrode or stain the surfaces on which it settles. PKP does not produce a lasting inert atmosphere above the surface of a flammable liquid. Therefore, its use will not result in permanent extinguishing if ignition sources, such as hot metal surfaces or persistent electrical arcing, are present. Reflash of the fire will most likely occur. The ingredients used in PKP are nontoxic. However, the discharge of large quantities may cause temporary breathing difficulty and, immediately after the discharge, may seriously interfere with visibility. FIREFIGHTING EQUIPMENT In assisting the crash firefighters, you will use very specialized equipment. A crash crew must bring its equipment into action with every pump nozzle delivering at its maximum capacity. Firefighting equipment is discussed in the following paragraphs. Firemain System You must get acquainted with the firemain system throughout your ship. You should know the location of the firemain and the riser piping that carries water to the upper decks. You must be able to identify the plugs where hoses can be attached to the mains. You must know the location of all pumps, valves, and controls in the vicinity of your duty and berthing stations. Fireplugs have outlets either 1 1/2 or 2 1/2 inches in diameter. Some plugs are equipped with wye gates that provide two outlets, each 1 1/2 inches in size. In some cases, a reducing connection is used so that a 1 1/2-inch hose can be attached to a 2 1/2-inch outlet. Connected to the fireplugs and stored in adjacent racks are two lengths of either 1 1/2- or 2 1/2-inch diameter hose. The 1 1/2-inch hose is used on smaller ships and below decks on larger ships. This hose is made up in 50-foot lengths, with the necessary end couplings. All threaded parts of firehose fittings and couplings have standard threads and are easy to connect. Hoses and fittings 1 1/2 inches and below have standard pipe threads. Those 2 1/2 inches and over have standard Navy hose threads. Two people working together can quickly prepare a firehose. You can do the job alone if you place the hose on the deck and hold it down with your foot just behind the fitting. The pressure of your foot will cause the metal fitting on the end of the hose to point upward. In this position you can screw in the nozzle or other fitting. Firehose is usually located on a bulkhead rack near a fireplug. Nozzles, extensions called applicators, and spanner wrenches are stowed on the bulkhead near the hose See Figure 1 3-9. When two lines are located separately on the bulkhead, one is connected to the firemain and the other is left unconnected. 13-6

Figure 13-10 —AFFF hose reel. High-Capacity AFFF Systems An AFFF station consists of a 600-gallon AFFF concentrate tank, a single-speed injection pump or a two-speed AFFF pump, electrical controllers, valves, and necessary piping. Saltwater and AFFF flow is controlled by hydraulically operated valves, which are actuated by solenoid-operated pilot valves (SOPVs). The SOPVs are activated by electrical switches at user locations Primary Flight (Pri-Fly), Navigational Bridge (NAVBRIDGE), hose stations, and conflagration (CON-FLAG) stations. The injection pump system supplies the flush eck nozzles on the flight deck, and the deck edge nozzles on Carrier Vessel Nuclear (CVNs). The two-speed pump operates at 27 or 65 gallons per minute (gpm), depending upon the demand. The low-rate output will supply handlines and small sprinkler systems. High-demand systems, such as hangar bay sprinklers, are served by the high- speed output. On selected CVs, the two-speed pump supplies the deck edge nozzles. Hangar Deck AFFF Sprinkler System The AFFF sprinkler systems are installed in the overhead of the hangar deck. The sprinkler system is divided into groups that can be individually actuated. Each group is supplied from two risers— one from a port AFFF injection station and one from a starboard AFFF injection station. Controls to start and stop flow to individual sprinkler groups are located in the CONFLAG stations and along each side of the hangar deck near the related sprinkler group. Flight Deck AFFF Extinguishing System Flight decks have an AFFF firefighting system that consists of flush-deck, flush-deck cannon-type, and deck-edge nozzles installed in combination with the saltwater washdown system. AFFF from the concentrate tank is injected into the saltwater (injection point is on the 03 level just downstream of the saltwater control valve) via a positive displacement pump, usually 60 gpm. This injection pump serves the flush-deck and cannon-type nozzles. Deck edge nozzles may be served by the AFFF two-speed pump system or single-speed injection pump system. Controls for the flight deck fixed fire-extinguishing system are located in both Pri-Fly and on the NAVB RIDGE. The controls allow for selection of saltwater AFFF or system shutdown. AFFF Hose Reel Station Hangar bay AFFF hose outlets are located port and starboard near the AFFF injection stations from which they are supplied. A push-button control is located adjacent to each AFFF hose station. The station has a 1 1/2-inch hose reel and one 2 1/2- inch hose outlet (Figure 13-10). Flight deck AFFF hose outlets are located in catwalks and near the island. The station has one reel of 1 1/2-inch hose and/or one 2 1/2-inch hose outlet or two 2 1/2-inch hose outlets with hose and nozzle preconnected to each outlet. A push-button control, X50J phone circuit box, and E call button are located next to each AFFF hose station. There is emergency lighting at each hose reel station. The controls are located in Pri-Fly and on the NAVB RIDGE.

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Figure 13-11 — Variable-stream fog nozzle. Figure 13-12 — Crash and rescue toolkit. Portable Firefighting Equipment As you become more familiar with aircraft firefighting tactics and equipment, you will become more familiar with the many different types of portable equipment that the firefighter uses to combat and contain aircraft fires. Some of the equipment you will use is discussed in this section. Vari-Nozzles Vari-nozzles are used on all AFFF and saltwater hose lines. Flow rates are 250 gpm for all 2 1/2-inch hose lines. Nozzles on 1 1/2-inch AFFF hoses on flight and hangar decks are the 125-gpm units. Nozzles on the 1 1/2-inch saltwater lines and those used with AFFF in-line inductors are 95-gpm models. All nozzle gpm flow rates are based on 100-pounds per square inch (psi) pressure at the nozzle inlet. See Figure 13-11. Hoses The standard Navy firehose is a double-jacketed, synthetic fiber with a rubber or similar elastomeric lining. The outer jacket is impregnated to increase wear resistance. The impregnating material contains an orange-colored pigmentation for easy identification. Navy firehose comes in 50-foot lengths and has a maximum operating pressure of 270 psi. Optimum hose handling occurs between 90 and 150 psi. Pressure above 150 psi is hazardous because excessive nozzle reaction force may result in loss of nozzle control. Noncollapsible rubber hose for the AFFF hose reel system is available in 3/4-inch and 1 1/2-inch size. The length of these hoses varies in size depending upon application and location. Tools A firefighter's toolkit should contain the following tools:  Large claw tool; small claw tool  Crowbar  Parachute knife  Pliers; screwdriver  Wrench  Hacksaw; metal saw  Chisels  Flashlight  Carpenter's hammer; maul  Bolt cutters  Notched ax Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIRSYSCOM) developed what is called an aircraft toolkit (Figure 13-12) for crash trucks. The station fire chief must ensure that one of these kits is carried on each of 13-8

the crash trucks assigned to the firefighting crew. The kit consists of a canvas tool roll with pockets or holders for specified tools. The crash kit contains tools for forced entry. Firefighters use these tools in rescuing occupants trapped in aircraft. The kit contains three tapered, hard-rubber plugs and three hardwood plugs. These plugs are used to stop fuel tank leaks. Protective Clothing Aircraft firefighting/rescue protective clothing is a prime safety consideration for personnel engaged in firefighting and rescue work. Aluminized protective clothing offers protection to fire fighters because of its high percentage of reflectivity to radiant heat. Aluminized proximity fabrics have been adopted for use in the Navy Mishap/Rescue Program. It is important to point out that these garments are not classified as entry suits, but are known as proximity clothing to be worn with firefighters’ knee-length boots that have safety toes and soles. Care and Maintenance of Protective Clothing The heat-reflective ability of aluminized clothing is reduced when the clothing is stained or otherwise soiled. Therefore, you must give careful attention to the care and maintenance instructions for protective clothing. Some guidelines are as follows:  Store clothing on hangers with suitable hanging space to prevent aluminized fabrics from creasing or cracking. If the garment is folded, the folds should be loose. Do not sit on a folded garment.  Sponge off dirt and soot by using mild soap and water. Dry aluminum surfaces with a clean cloth. Rub gently to avoid removal of the aluminum.  Remove grease stains by using dry-cleaning solvents. Remove AFFF by sponging the clothing clean with mild soap and water. Hang the garment to dry in the open or in a place with good circulation. During firefighting operations, it is not always possible to prevent firefighting agents from getting on protective clothing. However, aluminized protective clothing that has been covered or spotted with agents will have less heat-reflecting ability than the suit normally would provide.

 Corrosive chemicals will react with the aluminum surface and may etch the metal. Clean the clothing with water and wipe it dry. Allow it to hang in a ventilated location at room temperature.  Replace garments when the aluminum wears off or when the fabric cracks or tears. Spraying worn clothing with aluminum serves no useful purpose and is a dangerous practice. Care of Facepiece The gold-coated facepiece is a heat-reflective shield. The facepiece is NOT a sun shield. This item should be kept in excellent condition to maintain the radiant-heat-reflective efficiency. When the gold surface of the facepiece becomes worn, scratched, or marred, 90 percent of the heat protection is lost, and you should immediately replace the facepiece. Other precautions you should take with facepieces are as follows: NOTE Isopropanol or perchloroethylene will react with the metal in proximity suits and may etch the aluminum surface. Clean the clothing with water and wipe dry. Allow the garment to hang in a ventilated location at room temperature. 13-9

Figure 13-13 — T-3000 aircraft firefighting rescue vehicle.  Keep the protective cover in place when you are carrying or storing the hood to minimize damage to the gold-coated surface. Remove it when using the hood.  For adequate protection, replace a worn gold-coated facepiece. When wearing the facepiece, make sure the gold surface is on the outside as marked on the edge.  Avoid touching or wiping the gold surface as much as possibl e.  Clean the facepiece, without removing it from the hood, by using a clean, soft cloth with mild soapy water, and then rinse and pat dry. AIRCRAFT FIREFIGHTING AND RESCUE VEHICLES The Navy uses different types of trucks. The use depends on the base, type of aircraft assigned, and anticipated types of fires. Some of the trucks used by the Navy are the Oshkosh T-3000 firefighting/rescue vehicle, and the P-25 shipboard firefighting truck. Oshkosh T-3000 The Oshkosh T-3000 (Figure 13-13) is a diesel-powered, six- wheel-drive truck with an automatic transmission. The operator controls consist of power-assisted steering, air or mechanical brakes, transmission range selector, and in-cab controls for operating the firefighting system. The water storage tank has a capacity of 3,000 the AFFF concentrate tank holds 420 gallons. The roof turret has a discharge rate of 600 to 1,200 gpm and an infinitely variable pattern from straight stream to fully dispersed. The bumper turret is electric joystick controlled with auto-oscillation. The discharge rate is 300 gpm, and it is also variable pattern. Two 15-feet, 1 3/4-inch preconnected handlines are provided, one per side. The handlines have a discharge rate of 95 gpm and have a pistol grip with variable pattern. A/S32P-25 Shipboard Firefighting Vehicle The P-25 shipboard firefighting vehicle (Figure 13-14) is a 4-wheel (2-wheel drive), 6-cylinder, turbocharged, liquid-cooled, 24-volt, diesel-powered vehicle, with a hydrostatic drive system that transm its power to the rear wheels. Steering is performed by a single hydraulic cylinder and tie rod assembly that controls the front wheels. Dynamic vehicle braking is provided by the hydrostatic drive system. When the accelerator is released, the brakes automatically engage. Separate tanks within the vehicle chassis carry 750 gallons of water and 55 gallons of AFFF. Three 20-pound fire extinguishers containing Halon 1211 are stored on the right side of the vehicle. One nursing line 13-10

Figure 13-14 — A/S32P-25 shipboard firefighting and rescue vehicle. connection on each side of the vehicle provides AFFF mixture from the ship's system directly to the vehicle's water pump. The vehicle has seating for a crew of two. The driver compartment is located at the left forward end of the vehicle and contains the main control panel for activating the firefighting systems. AFFF can be sprayed from both the forward turret nozzle and handline hose reel nozzle. These nozzles operate independently and can be used simultaneously to make this vehicle ready for firefighting duty. AIRCRAFT FIRE HAZARDS Not every crash results in fire. The responsibility of the crash firefighter does not end when fire fails to occur. Serious actual and potential fire hazards may have been created, which you must eliminate or minimize without delay. The greater the damage to the aircraft is, the greater the possibility of fuel spillage. A spark or a hot engine part can ignite fuel vapors and set off a full-fledged fire. You should take every precaution to guard against accidental ignition. Personal laxity or unfamiliarity with ordinary preventive measures can allow a delayed fire to occur, which can endanger personnel. Flammable, Hazardous, and Fire-Accelerating Materials Accelerating materials carried on aircraft are of major concern to the aircraft rescue and firefighting crews. Aviation gasoline (AVGAS), jet fuels (JP-4, JP-5, and JP-8), engine oils, oxygen systems, and hydraulic fluids constitute problems in aircraft firefighting. Some of these fuels have restrictions as to where they can be used; for example, JP-4 is prohibited aboard ship due to its flash point.

Aviation Gasoline (AVGAS) The flash point (by closed cup method at sea level) of AVGAS is −50 °F (-−46 °C). The rate of flame spread has also been calculated to be between 700 and 800 feet per minute. CAUTION Under aircraft crash impact conditions where fuel-air mixtures or mists are created, all fuels are easily ignited. 13-11

JP-4 Fuel JP-4 jet fuel is a blend of gasoline and kerosene and has a flash point of−10 °F (−23 °C). The rate of flame spread has also been calculated to be between 700 and 800 feet per minute. JP-5 Fuel JP-5 fuel is a kerosene grade with a flash point of 140 °F (60 °C). The rate of flame spread has been calcula ted to be approximately 100 feet per minute. The lowest flash point considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is 140 °F (60 °C). Fuel Tanks When an aircraft crashes, the impact usually ruptures the fuel lines and fuel tanks. Ordinarily, all the fuel is not liberated at once. There is a source of fuel that is supplying the fire either from the rupture in the tank or from the loosened and ruptured fuel lines in the accessory section of the engine. The control of the fire around the fuselage section under these conditions presents a very complex problem. The top portion of the tank is more void of liquid than any other section of the tank. Because of the restraining cushion of the liquid itself, the explosive force will be directed upward instead of downward or on a horizontal plane. Fuel loads can vary from 30 gallons in small aircraft to approximately 50,000 gallons in large jet aircraft. Fuel tanks are installed in a variety of places within the aircraft structural framework or as a built-in part of the wing. Fuel tanks are often carried under the floor area in the fuselage of helicopters. You should refer to NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Emergency Rescue Information Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1, for the exact location of fuel tanks on a particular aircraft. Upon severe impact these tanks generally rupture and result in fire. Many naval aircraft are provided with external auxiliary fuel tanks located under the wings and fuselages. The aircraft manufacturers conducted a number of tests on external aircraft fuel tanks in which they were exposed to an enveloping fuel fire. These studies show that there were no deflagrations; however, the tanks did melt or rupture, releasing fuel onto the decks. The time to fuel tank failure (release of fuel) was dependent on the percent of fuel in the tank and ranged from 28 seconds for a 10-percent load to 3 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load. There is so little difference in the heat of combustion of the various aircraft hydrocarbon fuels that the severity after ignition would be of no significance from the "fire safety" point of view. The firefighting and control measures are the same for the entire group of aviation hydrocarbon fuels. Oxygen Systems Oxygen systems on aircraft can present hazardous conditions to firefighters during an emergency. Liquid oxygen is a light blue liquid that flows like water and is extremely cold. It boils into gaseous oxygen at −297 °F (−147 °C) and has an expansion rate of approximately 860 to 1. Liquid oxygen is a strong oxidizer, and although it is nonflammable, it vigorously supports combustion. General Hazards During aircraft firefighting operations, personnel are constantly in harm’s way, from the actual firefighting operations to the salvage and cleanup operations. All components and material in or on the aircraft are considered hazardous to personnel. The following paragraphs discuss a few of the hazards that personnel need to be familiar with. 13-12

Anti-Icing Fluids Anti-icing fluids are usually a mixture of about 85-percent alcohol and 15-percent glycerin. While not as great as other aircraft hazards, you should remember that alcohol used in aircraft anti-icing systems burns with an almost invisible flame. The best method of control is by dilution with water. Class A Combustibles Class A combustibles in aircraft fires are best extinguished with AFFF. When aircraft cockpit and interior finish materials are burned or charred, they produce toxic gases. These gases include carbon monoxide, hydrogen chloride, and hydrogen cyanide. Therefore, it is necessary that firefighting and rescue personnel who enter an aircraft during a fire sequence be equipped with a self-contained breathing apparatus. Ordnance

Naval aircraft carry a wide variety of ordnance in support of their assigned missions. For more information on the characteristics and cookoff times of ordnance, refer to Chapter 8 of this manual and NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14, Chapter 2. Flare Dispensers The SUU-44/SUU-25 flare dispensers carry eight Mk 45 or LUU-2 paraflares. When the flares are ejected from the dispenser and the tray separates, they must be considered fully armed. Once the tray separates from the flare, it ignites a fuse on the Mk 45 flare, which will fire within 5 to 30 seconds. The LUU-2 flare uses a simple mechanical timer instead of an explosive fuse. If ignited, the Mk 45 or LUU-2 candle should be extinguished by inserting a water applicator tip into the burning end of the candle, applying low-velocity fog. The flare will normally extinguish in less than 30 seconds. If a fog applicator is not readily available, an alternate method is to have a fully outfitted firefighter cut the shroud lines, pick up the flare by the cold end, and jettison it over the side or remove it to a clear area if ashore. Batteries Alkaline or nickel-cadmium batteries may get hot from internal shorting or thermal runaway. The overheated battery is hazardous to both aircraft and personnel. When an overheated battery is detected, the crash crew should open the battery compartment, check for the following conditions, and take the action indicated:

 When flame is present, use available extinguishing agent, such as Halon 1211 or CO 2.  When the battery is emitting smoke, fumes, or electrolyte in the absence of flame or fire, make sure the battery switch in the cockpit is in the OFF position. Remove the quick disconnect from the battery and, if possible, move the battery clear of the aircraft. Use water fog to lower the battery temperature. WARNING Halon 1211 or CO2 is an acceptable fire-extinguishing agent once a fire has developed. CO2 must not be directed into a battery compartment to effect cooling or to displace explosive gases. Static electricity generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could explode hydrogen or oxygen gases trapped in the battery compartment. 13-13

Composite Materials The following paragraphs discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using composite materials in aircraft construction.

Composite Materials Reinforced with Carbon/Graphite Fibers Composite materials that are reinforced with carbon/graphite fibers provide superior stiffness, a high strength-to-weight ratio, and ease of fabrication. As a result, this material is being used extensively in advanced aircraft, such as the F/A-18, to replace heavier metal components. Unfortunately, carbon or graphite fibers can be released into the atmosphere if their epoxy binder burns. Once free, these small, lightweight fibers can be transported up to several miles by air currents and, because of their high electrical conductivity, can damage unprotected electrical/electronic equipment. Until such time as more information is known, aircraft crash and firefighting units must attempt to extinguish fires involving carbon-fiber-reinforced composites as quickly as possible and to provide maximum containment of the aircraft debris. The containment and cleanup function is extremely important and must be treated as a special hazard prevention measure. Accordingly, the practices for extinguishing, containment, and cleanup, as stated in the NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14, should be observed when an aircraft crash/fire incident occurs that involves any aircraft that contain carbon-graphite fiber composites. Any aircraft incident involving fire on these types of aircraft must be considered to have potential contamination hazards until positively identified to the contrary. Composite Materials Reinforced with Boron/Tungsten Fibers Composite materials reinforced with boron fibers also provide superior stiffness, a high strength-to- weight ratio, and ease of fabrication. This material is being used in advanced aircraft, such as the F/A-18 and F-35, to replace heavier metal components. Unfortunately, boron fibers can be released if their epoxy binder burns. Boron fibers pose less of a problem to unprotected electrical equipment than carbon or graphite fibers because boron fibers are much heavier and are less likely to become airborne. Also, boron fibers are much less electrically conductive. However, loose boron fibers are stiff and sharp and thus pose handling problems. The extinguishing, containment, and cleanup practices for boron fibers are the same as those previously outlined for carbon or graphite fibers. WARNING When approaching a battery that is in a thermal runaway condition, aircraft rescue and firefighting personnel must work in teams of two and must be attired in full protective clothing, with extinguishing agent available for instant use. WARNING Inhalation of composite fibers resulting from aircraft fires and/or aircraft material damage may be harmful to personnel. Respiratory protection must be worn when personnel are exposed to these potential hazards. 13-14

Aircraft Fire and Personnel Hazards Not every crash results in fire. The responsibility of the crash firefighter does not end when fire fails to occur. Serious actual and potential fire hazards may have been created, which must be eliminated or minimized without delay. The greater the damage to the aircraft is, the greater the possibility of fuel spillage. A spark or a hot engine part can ignite fuel vapors and set off a full-fledged fire. You must take all precautions to prevent accidental ignition. Personal laxity or unfamiliarity with ordinary preventive measures can cause a delayed fire, which can endanger personnel who would otherwise survive a disaster. Engine Accessory Section The most common source of crash fires is the engine compartment, particularly the accessory section. Take steps to prevent ignition of fuel vapors by hot exhaust stacks and collector rings. CO2 discharged through the cooling flaps, air scoop, or inspection doors is an effective precaution. CO2 will cause no damage to the engine or its accessories. Fuel Spills Fuel spills can be caused by ruptured fuel lines. These spills should be swept clear of the aircraft. Use water streams and follow up with a layer of foam to halt vaporization. An aircraft should NEVER be dragged or moved unnecessarily. There is great danger that friction will ignite the fuel. Selector Valve You should know the location of the fuel selector valve on as many types of aircraft as possible. In single-engine aircraft, this valve is usually found on the lower left-hand side of the cockpit. In multiengine aircraft, fuel selector valves for all engines are usually found on one panel. Turn the valve to OFF. It is the primary fuel cutoff valve. The valve is used to select various fuel tanks. In the OFF position, the valve completely separates the source of fuel from the engine. Battery Switch Turn the battery switch to OFF. This is the master electrical switch. It is the source of all power to the aircraft electrical system when the engine(s) are not running. Memorize the location of battery switches so you can turn the power off rapidly in emergencies. Disconnect the battery, if possible, as detonators and electrical recognition devices are connected ahead of the master switch. Turning the s witch off will not stop the flow of current to these devices.

Armament Turn gun switches to OFF so there is no chance of firing a gun accidentally. This is one of the first actions taken by firefighters to prevent fire at the crash scene. CAUTION When fighting a fire on an aircraft known to have loaded guns aboard, stay out of the area forward of the guns. If rockets or bombs are in the aircraft, stay clear of them, keep low to the deck, and keep the bombs or rockets cool with water fog or fog foam until they are declared safe. 13-15

Figure 13-15 — Fluid line identification application. Ejection Seat The ejection seat is not normally a fire hazard if fire is not already present. The ejection seat should be disarmed or made safe by qualified personnel. The greatest danger from an ejection seat comes during rescue operations when fire is present. Hydraulic System The hydraulic system of a crashed aircraft should be considered a potential hazard. The loss of hydraulic fluid/pressure can cause an unexpected movement of the aircraft. The landing gear can collapse or brakes can release, causing injury to personnel. Fluid Line Identification Many different types of liquids and gases are required for the operation of aircraft. These liquids and gases are transmitted through many feet of tubing and flexible hose. Both liquids and gases are called fluids, and tubing and flexible hose are referred to as lines. The term "fluid lines" is used in the following discussion. Each fluid line in an aircraft is identified by bands of paint or strips of tape around the line near each fitting. These identifying markers are applied at least once in each compartment. Various other information is also applied to the lines. In most instances, lines are marked by the use of tape or decals. On lines 4 inches and larger in diameter, steel tags may be used in place of tape or decals. On lines in engine compartments, where there is a possibility of tapes, decals, or tags being drawn into the engine intake, paint is usually used. Identification tape codes indicate the function, contents, hazards, direction of flow, and pressure in the fluid line. These tapes are applied according to MIL-STD- 1247. This military s tandard was issued to standardize fluid line identification throughout the Department of Defense. Figure 13-15 shows the application of these tapes as specified by this standard. The function of a line is identified by the use of a tape. The tape, approximately 1-inch wide, has words, colors, and geometric symbols printed on it. Functional identification markings, as shown in MIL-STD-1247, are the subject of international standardization agreement. The function of the line is printed in English across the colored portion of the tape. Three-fourths of the total width on the left side of the tape has a code color. Non-English-speaking people can troubleshoot or maintain the aircraft if they know the color code. The right-hand quarter of the functional identification tape contains a geometric symbol that is different for every function. This symbol ensures that all technicians, whether colorblind or non- English-speaking will be able to identify the line function. Figure 13-16 is a listing of functions and their associated colors and identification markings as used on tapes. Hazard tape shows the hazard associated with the contents of the line. Tapes used to show hazards are approximately 1/2-inch wide, with the abbreviation of the hazard associated with the fluid in the 13-16

line printed across the tape. There are four general classes of hazards found in connection with fluid lines (Table 13-1). Flammable material (FLAM) The hazard marking FLAM is used to identify all materials known as flammables or combustibles. Toxic and poisonous materials (TOXIC) A line identified by the word TOXIC contains materials that are extremely hazardous to life or health. Anesthetics and harmful materials (AAHM) AAHM identifies all materials that produce anesthetic vapors and all liquid chemicals and compounds that are hazardous to life and property. Physically dangerous materials (PHDAN) PHDAN identifies a line that carries material that is asphyxiating in confined areas or is under a dangerous physical state of pressure or temperature. For example, the line shown in Figure 13-15 is marked PHDAN because the compressed air is under a pressure of 3,000 psi.

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Figure 13-16 — Functional identification tape data.

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Table 13-1 — Hazards Associated with Various Fluids and Gases AIRCRAFT FIREFIGHTING TACTICS Aircraft firefighting, crash, and rescue techniques are well defined, but no two fire situations will be identical. Success will continue to depend on training, planning, leadership, and teamwork by both ship's company and air wing personnel. Supervisory personnel, fire parties, and squadron personnel should take advantage of every opportunity to drill and acquire knowledge of fixed and mobile firefighting equipment available to them. All personnel should become familiar with aircraft configuration, fuel load, weapons load, and firefighting techniques of assigned aircraft. The following paragraphs discuss procedures recommended for training purposes.

Accessory Section, Compressor Compartment, or Engine Compartment of Jet Fixed-Wing and Rotary-Wing Aircraft Fires in the accessory section, compressor compartment, or engine compartment of jet aircraft result from fuel being introduced into the area between the engine and fuselage, or between the engine and nacelle on engines carried in pods that come into contact with the heat generated by the engine. You must be familiar with these areas to be able to properly apply extinguishing agents. (For more CONTENTS HAZARD Air (under pressure) PHDAN Alcohol FLAM Carbon dioxide PHDAN Freon PHDAN Gaseous oxygen PHDAN Liquid nitrogen PHDAN Liquid oxygen PHDAN Liquid petroleum gas (LPG) FLAM Nitrogen gas PHDAN Oils and greases FLAM JP-4 FLAM Trichloroethylene AAHM CAUTION When AFFF is used as the fire suppression agent on an aircraft fire and the agent is directed at or ingested into the engine or accessory sections, the fire chief or senior fire official must notify the maintenance officer of the unit involved or, in the case of a transient aircraft, the supporting facility. 13-19

information, refer to NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Emergency Rescue Information Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1.) Halon 1211 or CO2 is the extinguishing agent used on these fires. However, when a fire in an aircraft cannot be extinguished with Halon 1211 or CO2, the use of AFFF to prevent further damage outweighs the disadvantages. Internal Engine Fires Internal engine fires usually result when residual fuel is dumped into the engine on shutdown. When starting equipment and qualified starting personnel are immediately available, these fires may be controlled by windmilling the engine. If this procedure fails or if the equipment and personnel are not available, an extinguishing agent must be directed into the engine. Halon 1211 or CO2 is the primary agent for internal fires. Application of Halon 1211 or CO2 must be accomplished at a distance so that the Halon 1211 or CO2 enters the fire area in gaseous form.

Aircraft Engine Fires Use the following procedures for extinguishing fires in high bypass turbofan engines: 1. Engine accessory section fire.  Halon 1211 or CO 2 may be introduced into the engine accessory section area through the access doors located on the aircraft engine cowling.  When the fire is under control, one firefighter in full protective clothing (hot suit) will open the engine cowling. An AFFF handline should be used to provide fire protection to the firefighter.

2. Engine fire in compressor section engine core.  Halon 1211 or CO 2 may be introduced into the engine intake, exhaust, or accessory section. CAUTION When CO2 or Halon 1211 is expelled directly into an engine, thermal shock may result, causing engine damage. High bypass turbofan engines require unique techniques to extinguish engine core fires. CAUTION The source of this fire will probably be burning titanium and can be identified by the sparking effect of this material when it is burning. This fire is potentially destructive and may possibly burn through the engine casing if immediate fire suppression measures are not taken. NOTE A screwdriver may be required to open the engine cowling due to the restrictions of proximity gloves. 13-20

 When the fire is under control, one firefighter in full protective clothing (hot suit) will open the engine cowling. An AFFF handline should be used to provide fire protection to the firefighter.  When the engine cowling is open, apply AFFF to both sides of the engine casing to complete extinguishing and provide additional cooling. Electrical and Electronic Equipment Fires In combating electrical fires, you must secure the source of electrical power. For combating class C fires, Halon 1211 or CO2 is the primary agent and should have no adverse effect on electrical or electronic components.

Tailpipe Fires When a fire occurs in the tailpipe of an aircraft during shutdown, the aircraft engine should be started by authorized personnel in order to attempt extinguishing through exhaust pressures. If this operation does not extinguish the fire, the following should be performed by the crash crew. 1. Direct fire-extinguishing agents Halon 1211 or CO2 into the tailpipe. 2. If fire is not extinguished by the above method, direct the stream of extinguisher agent into the intake duct.

Hot Brakes During a normal or an emergency landing, the landing gear is an item of considerable concern. With the added weight and landing speeds of modern aircraft, and because of the extreme braking required on shorter runways, overheated brakes and wheels are a common occurrence. You, as a firefighter, must have a thorough understanding of the hazards created by overheated brakes, as well as the techniques and equipment used with this type of emergency. Overheated aircraft wheels and tires present a potential explosion hazard because of built-up air pressure in the tires, which is greatly increased when fire is present. To avoid endangering the crews needlessly, all nonessential personnel should evacuate the area. The recommended procedure for cooling overheated wheel, brake, and tire assemblies is to park the aircraft in an isolated area and allow the assemblies to cool in the surrounding air. Using cooling agents, such as water, is not recommended unless absolutely necessary due to increased hazards to personnel near the overheated assembly. Most aircraft operating manuals for propeller-driven aircraft recommend that flight crews keep the propeller turning fast enough to provide an ample cooling airflow. Most major jet, propeller-driven, and turboprop aircraft now have fusible plugs incorporated in the wheel rims. These WARNING Halon 1211 may be used in a small electronics compartment to make the atmosphere inert, provided firefighters do not enter the compartment, or enter it with a self-contained breathing apparatus. Do NOT use CO2 to make the atmosphere in an electronics compartment inert, as it may produce a spark. WARNING Do NOT stand directly in front of the intake duct. 13-21

Figure 13-17 — Danger zones and attack zones in combating wheel fires. (Attack the fire from fore and aft—do not attack from the side). fusible plugs are designed to automatically deflate the tires. (Failure of fusible plugs to function properly has occurred.) Releasing the tire pressure reduces the pressure on the wheel, and thus eliminates the possibility of explosion. When responding to a wheel fire or hot brakes as a member of the emergency crew, you should approach the wheel with extreme caution in a fore or aft direction, never from the side in line with the axle. Peak temperatures may not be reached until 15 to 20 minutes after the aircraft has come to a complete stop. See Figures 13-17 and 13-18. 13-22

Figure 13-18 — Hot brakes danger areas. Wheel Assembly Fires The following types of fires and hazards may occur around an aircraft wheel assembly: 1. The heating of aircraft wheels and tires presents a potential explosion hazard, which is greatly increased when fire is present. The combination of increased stress on the brake wheel assembly, additional tire pressure, and the deterioration of components by heat may cause an explosion. This explosion is likely to propel pieces of the tire and/or metal through the air at high speeds.

2. Materials that may contribute to wheel assembly fires are grease, hydraulic fluid, beari ng lubricants, and tire rubber. a. Grease and bearing lubricant fires. When ignited, wheel grease fires can be identified by long flames around the wheel brake/axle assembly. These fires are usually small and should be extinguished quickly with Halon 1211 or water fog. CAUTION The use of CO2 for rapid cooling of a hot brake or wheel assembly is extremely dangerous. Explosive fracture may result because of the rapid change in temperature. 13-23

b. Rubber tires. Rubber from the tires may ignite at temperatures from 500 °F (260 °C) to 600 °F (315 °C) and can develop into an extremely hot and destructive fire. Halon 1211 or water fog should be used as early as possible to extinguish the fire. Reigniting may occur if the rubber sustains its autoignition temperature or if the rubber is abraded and the fire is deep-seated. c. A broken hydraulic line may result in the misting of petroleum-based fluids onto a damaged or hot wheel assembly. Upon ignition, misting fluid will accelerate a fire, resulting in rapid fire growth and excessive damage to the aircraft if it is not extinguished rapidly. The following safety information pertains to all aspects of wheel assembly firefighting operations:  Rapid cooling may cause an explosive failure of a wheel assembly.  When water fog is used on a wheel assembly fire, an intermittent application of short bursts (5 to 10 seconds) every 30 seconds should be used.  The effectiveness of Halon 1211 may be severely reduced under extremely windy conditions if the Halon cannot be maintained on the fire source.  You must take protective measures to prevent hydraulic fluid from coming into contact with the eyes. Seek medical attention immediately should the fluid come in contact with the eyes.  Positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus must be worn in fighting fires associated with hydraulic systems.  Although Halon 1211 may extinguish hydraulic fluid fires, reigniting may occur because this agent lacks an adequate cooling effect.  Because heat is transferred from the brake to the wheel, agent application should be concentrated on the brake area. The primary objective is to prevent the fire from spreading upward into wheel wells, wing, and fuselage areas.

WARNING A broken hydraulic line that causes misting of petroleum- based fluids around an overheated brake assembly can cause a potentially dangerous and destructive fire. Intermittent application of water fog should be used to extinguish this type of wheel assembly fire. Rapid cooling of a hot inflated aircraft tire/wheel assembly presents an explosion hazard. Therefore, firefighting personnel must exercise good judgment and care to prevent injuries. The vaporized products of hydraulic fluid decomposition will cause severe irritation to the eyes and respiratory tract. 13-24

End of Chapter 13 Crash Rescue and Firefighting Review Questions 13-1. What is considered the fourth element necessary to sustain a fire?

A. Chemical chain reaction B. Fuel C. Heat D. Oxygen

13-2. What word is defined as the lowest temperature at which its vapors can be ignited and will continue to burn?

A. Exhaust point B. Fir e point C. Flash point D. Vapor point

13-3. At what temperature will fuel spontaneously ignite?

A. 300 °F B. 500 °F C. 700 °F D. 900 °F

13-4. Removing the fuel or combustible matter is doing what to a fire?

A. Cooling B. Feeding C. Smothering D. Starving

13-5. Water in what form is very effective for firefighting purposes?

A. Foam B. Fog C. Solid stream D. Straight stream

13-6. What fire-extinguishing agent is an inert gas and extinguishes fires by smothering them?

A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP

13-25

13-7. What fire-extinguishing agent is a dry chemical principally used as a firefighting agent for flammable liquid fires?

A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP

13-8. What fire-extinguishing agent is known chemically as bromochlorodifluoromethane, is colorless, and has a sweet smell?

A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP

13-9. What size, in inches, are fireplug outlets?

A. 1¼ or 2¼ B. 1½ or 2½ C. 2¼ or 3¼ D. 2½ or 3½

13-10. How many gallons does a high-capacity AFFF system tank hold?

A. 200 B. 400 C. 600 D. 800

13-11. How many gallons per minute (gpm) flow from a 2 ½ inch vari-nozzle?

A. 150 B. 200 C. 250 D. 300

13-12. What firefighting vehicle is a diesel-powered, six-wheel-drive truck with an automatic transmission?

A. A/S32P- 25 B. A/S33P- 26 C. T-1000 D. T-3000

13-26

13-13. What firefighting vehicle is a 4-wheel (2-wheel drive), 6-cylinder, turbocharged, liquid-cooled, 24-volt, diesel-powered vehicle, with a hydrostatic drive system that transmits power to the rear wheels?

A. A/S32P- 25 B. A/S33P- 26 C. T-1000 D. T-3000

13-14. How many feet per minute (fpm) is the rate of flame spread of aviation gasoline (AVGAS)?

A. 700 to 800 B. 8 00 to 900 C. 9 00 to 1000 D. 1 ,000 to 1,100

13-15. What is the flash point of JP-4?

A. −5 °F B. −5 °C C. −10 °F D. −10 °C

13-16. The time to fuel tank failure (release of fuel) is dependent on the percent of fuel in the tank and ranges from what amount of time?

A. 2 8 seconds for a 10-percent load to 3 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load B. 38 seconds for a 10-percent load to 4 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load C. 1 minute for a 10-percent load to 6 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load D. 3 minutes for a 10-percent load to 8 minutes for a 100-percent load

13-17. At what temperature does liquid oxygen boil into gaseous oxygen?

A. −55 °F B. −155 °C C. −200 °F D. −147 °C

13-18. What are the primary agents used to extinguish internal engine fires?

A. A FFF or water B. Halon 1211 or CO 2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. PKP or CO 2

13-19. What are the primary agents used to extinguish electrical and electronic equipment fires?

A. PKP or water B. Halon 1211 or CO 2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. PKP or CO 2

13-27

13-20. What are the primary agents used to extinguish rubber tire fires?

A. PKP or water B. Halon 1211 or CO 2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. Halon 1211 or water fog

13-28

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13-29

APPENDIX I GLOSSARY ABOARD—In or on a ship, aircraft, or other means of transportation. ABORT—To cut short or break off an action, operation, or procedure with an aircraft, guided missile, or the like, especially because of equipment failure; for example, to abort a mission. A/C—Aircraft. ACCELERATION—A change in the velocity of a body, or the rate of such change with respect to speed or direction. ACCESSORY— A part, subassembly, or assembly designed for use in conjunction with or to supplement another assembly or unit; for example, the fuel control is an accessory for a turbojet engine. ACTUATOR—A mechanism for moving or controlling something indirectly. ADDITIVE—A substance added, in relatively small amounts, to improve another substance's physical properties or performance. AERODYNAMICS— The science that deals with the motion of air and other gaseous fluids and the forces acting on bodies in motion relative to such fluids. AFFF— Aqueous film-forming foam; also known as light water. AFT—Towards the rear of the ship, aircraft, or other object. AILERON—A movable control surface or device. One of a pair located in or attached to the wings on both sides of an aircraft. The primary purpose is to control the aircraft laterally or in a roll by creating unequal or opposing lifting forces on opposite sides of the aircraft. AIMD—Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Department. AIRFOIL— A structure or body, such as an aircraft wing or propeller blade, designed to provide lift/thrust when in motion relative to the surrounding air. AIRSPEED— The speed of an aircraft, missile, rocket, or the like, relative to the air through which it flies. ALLOY— A mixture with metallic properties composed of two or more elements, of which at least one is a metal. ALTIMETER—An instrument for measuring altitude. It uses the change in atmospheric pressure with altitude to indicate the approximate elevation above a given point. AMBIENT—Surrounding; adjacent to; next to. For example, ambient conditions are physical conditions of the immediate area, such as ambient temperature, ambient humidity, and ambient pressure ANGLE OF ATTACK—The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow or air. ANNEAL—To heat and then cool. ANNUNCIATOR—Electrically controlled signal board or indicator. AI-1

ANODIZE—To subject a metal to electrolytic action, as the anode of a cell, in order to coat it with a protective film. ANTI-ICING—The prevention of ice formation upon an aircraft's surface or engines. APEX—The uppermost point. APRON—An area, ordinarily paved, for parking or handling aircraft. ASCEND—To move or rise upward. ASW—Antisubmarine warfare. ATMOSPHERE—The body of air surrounding the earth. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). ATTITUDE—The position or orientation of an aircraft, either in motion or at rest, as determined by the relationship between its axes and some reference line or plane or some fixed system of reference axes. AUTOMATIC PARACHUTE RIPCORD RELEASE—A barometrically controlled device that mechanically or by explosive force actuates the parachute ripcord assembly and causes the parachute container to open at a preset altitude. AUTOMATIC PILOT—A device or system that automatically controls the flight of an aircraft or guided missile. AVGAS—Aviation gasoline for reciprocating engines. AVIONICS—Electronics as applied to aviation. AXIS—An imaginary line that passes through a body, about which the body rotates or may be assumed to rotate; for example, the horizontal axis, the lateral axis, and the longitudinal axis about which an aircraft rotates. BERNOULLI'S PRINCIPLE—If a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction, or narrowing of the tube, the velocity of fluid flowing through the constriction increases and the pressure decreases. BRU—Bomb Rack Unit. CAD—Cartridge Actuated Device. CANOPY—A covering; for example, a cockpit canopy is a transparent covering for a cockpit. CANTED DECK— The area of an aircraft carrier flight deck that is at an angle to the center line of the ship. The canted deck permits aircraft to be parked out of the way of landing aircraft. CELSIUS—The temperature scale using the freezing point as zero and the boiling point as 100, with 100 equal divisions between, called degrees. A reading is usually written in the abbreviated form, for example, 75 °C. This scale was formerly known as the Centigrade scale, but was renamed Celsius in recognition of Andrew Celsius, the Swedish astronomer who devised the scale. CHUTE—Abbreviated slang form of parachute. CNO—Chief o f Naval Operations. COCKPIT—A compartment in the top of an aircraft fuselage for the pilot and other crew members. AI-2

COWLING—A removable cover or housing placed over or around an aircraft component or section, especially an engine. DE-ICING—The breaking off or melting of ice from aircraft surfaces or fuel induction systems. DENSITY— The weight per unit volume of a substance. DESCENT—Relative to an aircraft, the downward movement, under control, from a higher to a lower altitude. DRAG—The force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of the airflow about the wings, fuselage (body), and all protruding objects on the aircraft. DYE MARKER—A substance that, when placed in water, spreads out and colors the water im mediately to make a spot readily visible from the air. EJECTION SEAT—An emergency escape seat for propelling an occupant out and away from the aircraft by means of an explosive charge or rocket motor. ELEVATOR—As applied to aircraft, a control surface, usually hinged to a horizontal stabilizer, that is used to control the aircraft about its lateral axis. As applied to aircraft carriers, elevators are used to move aircraft between the flight deck and hangar deck. EMERGENCY KIT—A standard soft pack, high-speed soft pack, special kit, or rigid seat survival kit containing a raft and survival equipment needed by an aircrewman in case of emergency. EMPENNAGE—The tail section of an aircraft, including the stabilizing and control surfaces. ENERGY— The ability or capacity to do work. ETA—Estimated time of arrival. FACE CURTAIN—A sheet of heavy fabric, installed above an ejection seat, that is pulled down to trigger the ejection seat and to protect the pilot or crew member's face against wind blast. FAIRING—A part or structure that has a smooth, streamlined outline, used to cover a nonstreamlined object. FLAP— The tendency of a blade to rise with high-lift demands as it tries to screw itself upward into the air. FLASH POINT— The temperature at which a substance, such as oil or fuel, will give off a vapor that will flash or burn momentarily when ignited. FLIGHT CONTROL MECHANISM— The linkage that connects the control(s) in the cockpit with the flight control surface(s). FORCE—The action of one body on another tending to change the state of motion of a body acted upon. Force is usually expressed in pounds. FRC—Fleet Readiness Center. FUSELAGE—The main or central structure of an aircraft that carries the crew, passengers, or other load. FUZE— A term used for the mechanical or electrical device that initiates detonation of an explosive at a desired time. GBU—Guided Bomb Unit. AI-3

GORE—The portions of the canopy located between adjacent radial seams and the vent and skirt hem. It consists of cloth sections sewn together. GPS—Global Positioning System. GROMMET—A metal eye and washer used to reinforce a hole in material; for example, gromme ts on container side flaps. GSE—Ground Support Equipment. GUIDED WEAPON—A weapon whose course may be altered inflight by a guidance control unit. HARM—High-speed, Antiradiation Missile. HE—High Explosive. HORSEPOWER—A unit of power equal to the power necessary to raise 33,000 pounds 1 foot in 1 minute. HOVERING—Maintaining a position above a fixed spot on the ground. A helicopter has the ability to remain in one spot in the air with little or no movement in any direction. HUMIDITY—Moisture or water vapor in the air. HYDRAULICS—The branch of mechanics that deals with the action or use of liquids forced through tubes and orifices under pressure to operate various mechanics. INERTIA— The tendency of a body at rest to remain at rest, and a body in motion to continue to move at a constant speed along a straight line, unless the body is acted upon in either case by an unbalanced force. JDAM—Joint Direct Attack Munition. JETTISON—To throw or dump overboard; for example, to drop or eject fuel, tanks, or gear from an aircraft to lighten the load for emergency action. JSOW—Joint Standoff Weapon. LAG—The tendency of rotor blades to remain at rest during acceleration. LANDING GEAR—The components of an aircraft that support and provide mobility for the aircraft on land, water, or other surfaces. LATERAL AXIS—The pivot point about which the aircraft pitches. LAU—Launch Adapter Unit (aircraft installed launcher). LAUNCH—To release or send forth. For example, to launch aircraft from an aircraft carrier. LE AD—The tendency of rotor blades to remain in motion during deceleration. LEADING EDGE—The forward edge of an airfoil that normally meets the air first. LGB—Laser-Guided Bomb. LGTR—Laser Guided Training Round. LHA—Amphibious Assault Ship (General Purpose). LHD —Amphibious Assault Ship (Multipurpose). LIFT—The force that acts in an upward direction to support the aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained. AI-4

LOADING— An operation that installs or stores airborne weapons on or in an aircraft. LONGERON— A main structural member that runs along the length of an airplane body to the fuselage. LONGITUDINAL—The lengthwise dimension; for example, the longitudinal axis of an aircraft runs lengthwise from the nose to the tail. LOX—Liquid oxygen. MIM—Maintenance Instruction Manual. MOD—Model or Modification. MONOCOQUE—An aircraft structure in which the stressed outer skin carries all or a major portion of the torsional and bending stress. MRC—Maintenance Requirements Card. MSDS— Material Safety Data Sheet. MULTI-CLIMATE PROTECTION SYSTEM (MCPS)—A modular garment system composed of 12 pieces that can be mixed and matched to form 6 different individual layers. The garment system can be worn in conjunction with flight suits and aviation flight equipment in a broad range of climate conditions by adding or removing layers that provide flame resistance, moisture management, thermal wind, and water protection. NACELLE— A streamlined structure, housing, or compartment on an aircraft; for example, a housing for an engine. NAMP—The Naval Aviation Maintenance Program. NAS—Naval air station. NATO—North Atlantic Treaty Organization. NATOPS—Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization. NBC—Nuclear Biological Chemical. NEWTON'S FIRST LAW OF MOTION— According to Newton's first law of motion (inertia), an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until an outside force acts on it. For an aircraft to taxi or fly, a force must be applied to it. It will remain at rest without an outside force. Once the aircraft is moving, another force must act on it to bring it to a stop. It will continue in motion without an outside force. This willingness of an object to remain at rest or to continue in motion is referred to as inertia. NEWTON'S SECOND LAW OF MOTION— The second law of motion (force) states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion (acceleration) will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved. The motion will take place in the direction in which the force acts. Simply stated, this means that an object being pushed by 10 pounds of force will travel faster than it would if it were pushed by 5 pounds of force. A heavier object will accelerate more slowly than a lighter object when an equal force is applied. NEWTON'S THIRD LAW OF MOTION— The third law of motion (action and reaction) states that for every action (force) there is an equal and opposite reaction (force). This law can be demonstrated with a balloon. If you inflate a balloon with air and release it AI-5

without securing the neck, as the air is expelled the balloon moves in the opposite direction of the air rushing out of it. OAT—Outside air temperature. PARACHUTE—A device that offers resistance to the air, thereby decreasing the velocity of a descending body to permit landing at a suitable rate of descent. PARACHUTE ASSEMBLY— A complete parachute, including the canopy assembly, container assembly, harness assembly, and riser/lift web assembly. PITCH— The rotational movement of an aircraft about its lateral axis. Pitch can best be described as the up and down motion of the nose of the aircraft. PRESSURE—The amount of force distributed over each unit of area. Pressure is expressed in pounds per square inch (psi). PYLON—A structure or strut that supports an engine pod, external tank, etc., on an aircra ft. RADAR—A device that uses reflected radio waves for the detection of objects. RADOME—A dome housing for a radar antenna on an aircraft. RAMAIR—Air forced into an air intake or duct by the motion of the intake or duct through the air. RATE OF DESCENT—The speed that a parachute descends through the air. The rate varies according to atmospheric pressure, weight of load, movement of air (updraft and down draft), and the size, design, and condition of canopy. RESCUE NET—A net that resembles a conically shaped birdcage with an opening on one side. The net weighs approximately 20 pounds and is bright yellow for high visibility. RESCUE SEAT— A buoyant aluminum device consisting of a hollow flotation chamber and a three-pronged seat with prongs 120 degrees apart. RESCUE STROP— A device used to assist personnel performing rescue work from a helicopter over water or land. Also known as the horse collar and rescue sling. RESERVE PARACHUTE— A chest-type parachute attached to the harness of a training or test parachute in addition to the back type. It has no pilot parachute. It is used in case the main parachute fails to open properly or sustains damage that will cause an unsafe rate of descent. RPM—Revolutions per minute. RUDDER— An upright control surface that is deflected to control yawing movement about the vertical axis of an aircraft. SAR—Search and Rescue. SE—Support equipment. All of the equipment on the ground needed to support aircraft in a state of readiness for flight. SELECTOR VALVE—A valve used to control the flow of fluid to a particular mechanism, as in a hydraulic system. SERVICING—The refilling of an aircraft with consumables such as fuel, oil, and compressed gases to predetermined levels, pressures, quantities, or weights. SLAM-ER— Stand-off Land Attack Missile – Expanded Response. SLIPSTREAM—The stream of air driven backward by a rotating propeller. AI-6

SPECIFIC GRAVITY—The ratio of the weight of a given volume of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of some standard substance, such as water. STRUT—A type of supporting brace; a rigid member or assembly that bears compr ession loads, tension loads, or both, such as a landing gear to transmit the load from the fuselage of the aircraft. TAB—A small auxiliary airfoil set into the trailing edge of an aircraft control surface and used to trim, to move, or to assist in moving the larger surface. TD— Target Detector. TENSION—A force or pressure that exerts a pull or resistance. THRUST—Th e forward-direction pushing or pulling force developed by an aircraft engine or rocket engine. TORQUE—A turning or twisting force. TOW—Tube Launched Optically Tracked Wire Guided Missile. TRAILING EDGE—The aft edge of an airfoil. The edge over which the airflow normally passes last. VELOCITY— The rate of motion in a particular direction. VERTICAL AXIS—The axis that runs from the top to the bottom of an aircraft. It runs perpendicular to both the roll and pitch axes. The movement associated with this axis is yaw. VISCOSITY—The internal resistance of a liquid that tends to prevent it from flowing. WAVE OFF—An act or instance of refusing an aircraft permission to land in an approach, requiring another attempt. Also, the signal given an aircraft in such refusal. WEIGHT—The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything in the aircraft, such as crew, fuel, and cargo. YAW—The rotational movement of an aircraft about its vertical axis. Yaw is best described as the change in aircraft heading to the right or left of the primary direction of an aircraft. AI-7

APPENDIX II REFERENCES

Chapter 1 Basic Military Requirements, NAVEDTRA 14325, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, February 2002. United States Naval Aviation 1910-1995, Naval Historical Center, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, 1997. United States Naval Aviation 1996-2011, Naval Historical Center, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, 2011. Manual of Navy Enlisted Manpower and Personnel Classification and Occupational Standards, NAVPERS 18068-F, Department of the Navy, Bureau of Naval Personnel, Washington, DC, July 2012. Chapter 2 Basic Military Requirements, NAVEDTRA 14325, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, February 2002. Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 series, Naval Air Systems Command, Patuxent River, MD, May 2012. Aviation Maintenance Ratings, NAVEDTRA 14022, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, November 2003. Chapter 3 United States Naval Aviation 1910-1995, Naval Historical Center, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, 1997. United States Naval Aviation 1996-2011, Naval Historical Center, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, 2011. NOTE Although the following references were current when this NRTC was published, their continued currency cannot be assured. When consulting these references, keep in mind that they may have been revised to reflect new technology or revised methods, practices, or procedures; therefore, you need to ensure that you are studying the latest references. If you find an incorrect or obsolete reference, please use the Rate Training Manual User Update Form provided at the end of each chapter to contact the CNATT Rate Training Manager. AII-1

Fundamentals of Aviation and Space Technology, Institute of Aviation, University of Illinois, Savoy, IL, 1974. Chapter 4 Aviation Structural Mechanic (AM), NAVEDTRA 14315A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. General Manual for Structural Repair, NAVAIR 01-1A-1, Naval Air Technical Services Facility, Philadelphia, PA, November 2006. Chapter 5 Aviation Structural Mechanic (AM), NAVEDTRA 14315A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. Chapter 6 Aviation Structural Mechanic (AM), NAVEDTRA 14315A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. Chapter 7 Aviation Machinist’s Mate 3 & 2, NAVEDTRA 14008, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, January 2004. Chapter 8 Aviation Electrician’s Mate (AE), NAVEDTRA 14009A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. Aviation Electronics Technician 1 (Organizational), NAVEDTRA 14030, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, June 1993. Chapter 9 Aviation Ordnanceman, NAVEDTRA 14313A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. Chapter 10 Aviation Support Equipment Technician (AS), NAVEDTRA 14329, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, July 2002. Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 series, Naval Air Systems Command, Patuxent River, MD, May 2012.

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Chapter 11 Aviation Boatswain's Mate H, NAVEDTRA 14353, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, November 2003. Aviation Maintenance Ratings, NAVEDTRA 14022, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, November 2003. Aircraft Signals, NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-113, Naval Air Systems Command, December 2001. CV NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-105, Naval Air Systems Command, May 2007. LHD/LHA/LPD NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-106, Naval Air Systems Command, May 2009. CVN FLIGHT/HANGAR DECK NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-120, Naval Air Systems Command, December 2010. Chapter 12 Aircrew Survival Equipmentman (PR), NAVEDTRA 14218A, Naval Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, FL, January 2012. Chapter 13 Aviation Boatswain's Mate H, NAVEDTRA 14353, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, November 2003. Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual, NATOPS, U.S. Navy, NAVAIR 00-80R-14, Naval Sea Systems Command, May 2011. AII-3

APPENDIX III HAND SIGNALS

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AIII-9

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APPENDIX IV Answers to End of Chapter Questions Chapter 1 – Mission and History of Naval Aviation

1-1. A 1-2. C 1-3. C 1-4. A 1-5. D 1-6. B 1-7. D 1-8. C 1-9. A 1-10. B 1-11. D 1-12. B 1-13. C 1-14. C 1-15. A

Chapter 2 – Organization of Naval Aviation

2-1. A 2-2. C 2-3. C 2-4. B 2-5. D 2-6. B 2-7. B 2-8. A 2-9. A 2-10. D 2-11. C 2-12. B 2-13. A 2-14. D 2-15. C 2-16. B 2-17. D 2-18. C 2-19. A 2-20. D 2-21. B 2-22. D 2-23. C 2-24. C 2-25. A 2-26. C 2-27. D 2-28. B 2-29. B 2-30. C 2-31. C 2-32. D 2-33. A 2-34. B 2-35. D 2-36. C 2-37. B 2-38. A 2-39. A

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Chapter 3 – Principles of Flight

3-1. C 3-2. B 3-3. A 3-4. D 3-5. C 3-6. D 3-7. B 3-8. A 3-9. B 3-10. C 3-11. D 3-12. A 3-13. D 3-14. B 3-15. A 3-16. B 3-17. A 3-18. B 3-19. A 3-20. C

Chapter 4 – Aircraft Basic Construction

4-1. D 4-2. D 4-3. C 4-4. C 4-5. B 4-6. A 4-7. A 4-8. C 4-9. D

Chapter 5 – General Aircraft Maintenance

5-1. B 5-2. D 5-3. D 5-4. B 5-5. C 5-6. D 5-7. A 5-8. D 5-9. A 5-10. D 5-11. B 5-12. D 5-13. C 5-14. B 5-15. B 5-16. D 5-17. D 5-18. C 5-19. B 5-20. D 5-21. A 5-22. A 5-23. A 5-24. B 5-25. A 5-26. B 5-27. C 5-28. D 5-29. B 5-30. C 5-31. A 5-32. C

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Chapter 6 – Aircraft Hardware

6-1. D 6-2. A 6-3. A 6-4. B 6-5. D 6-6. C 6-7. C 6-8. A 6-9. A 6-10. A 6-11. B

Chapter 7 – Aircraft Power Plants

7-1. B 7-2. C 7-3. A 7-4. D 7-5. B 7-6. C 7-7. A 7-8. D 7-9. C 7-10. B 7-11. B 7-12. C 7-13. B 7-14. A 7-15. D 7-16. B 7-17. D 7-18. A 7-19. B 7-20. B

Chapter 8 – Aircraft Avionics

8-1. D 8-2. A 8-3. A 8-4. C 8-5. B 8-6. C 8-7. B 8-8. B 8-9. D 8-10. C 8-11. A 8-12. C 8-13. B 8-14. A 8-15. C 8-16. B 8-17. D 8-18. C

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Chapter 9 – Aircraft Ordnance

9-1. C 9-2. D 9-3. B 9-4. D 9-5. B 9-6. A 9-7. C 9-8. C 9-9. D 9-10. D 9-11. A 9-12. B 9-13. A 9-14. D 9-15. A 9-16. A 9-17. A 9-18. B 9-19. D 9-20. B 9-21. A 9-22. B 9-23. C 9-24. B 9-25. C 9-26. C 9-27. B 9-28. A 9-29. C 9-30. B 9-31. D 9-32. B 9-33. C

Chapter 10 – Support Equipment

10-1. B 10-2. C 10-3. D 10-4. B 10-5. C 10-6. A 10-7. C 10-8. D 10-9. D 10-10. A 10-11. B 10-12. B

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Chapter 11 – Line Operations and Safety

11-1. A 11-2. C 11-3. B 11-4. D 11-5. A 11-6. C 11-7. A 11-8. D 11-9. B 11-10. D 11-11. B 11-12. A 11-13. C 11-14. A 11-15. D 11-16. D 11-17. A 11-18. B 11-19. B 11-20. B 11-21. C 11-22. D 11-23. C 11-24. D 11-25. B

Chapter 12 – Aircrew Survival Equipment

12-1. A 12-2. D 12-3. B 12-4. D 12-5. D 12-6. B 12-7. B 12-8. A 12-9. A 12-10. D 12-11. B 12-12. A 12-13. C 12-14. B 12-15. D

Chapter 13 – Crash Rescue and Firefighting

13-1. A 13-2. C 13-3. B 13-4. D 13-5. B 13-6. B 13-7. D 13-8. C 13-9. B 13-10. C 13-11. C 13-12. D 13-13. A 13-14. A 13-15. C 13-16. A 13-17. D 13-18. B 13-19. B 13-20. D

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Index-1 INDEX

A Aerodynamics, physical laws affecting, 3-1 to 3-2 Aerographer's Mate (AG), 1-15 Air Traffic Controller (AC), 1-15 Aircraft aboard carriers, securing, 11-12 to 11-15 Aircraft avionics, 8-1 to 8-23 active, 8-19 airborne auxiliary power units (APU), 8-4 airborne communications equipment, 8-13 to 8-14 aircraft storage batteries, 8-1 to 8-3 airspeed and mach number indicator, 8-6 to 8-7 alternating current (ac) systems, 8-3 to 8-5 altimeter, 8-6 altitude indicator, 8-11 antisubmarine warfare equipment (ASW), 7-19 to 7-20 applications of radar, 8-17 battery safety precautions, 8-2 carrier aircraft electrical power 8-5 communications and navigation equipment, 8-13 to 8-18 echo principles, 8-16 to 8-17 electronic countermeasures, 8-19 emergency electrical power, 8-3 to 8-4 emergency power generators, 8-3 to 8-4 engine instruments, 8-8 to 8-10 exhaust gas temperature indicator, 8-8 fuel pressure indicator, 8-7 fuel quantity indicator, 8-9 gyro compass, 8-12 gyroscopes, 8-11 to 8-12 horizontal situation indicator, 8-12 hydraulic pressure indicator, 8-7 to 8-8 identification friend or foe (IFF), 8-18 to 8-19 lead-acid battery, 8-1 to 8-2 long-range communications, 8-13 magnetic anomaly detection (MAD), 8-20 magnetic (standby) compass, 8-12 navigational computers, 8-15 to 8-16 navigational equipment, 8-14 to 8-16 navigational instruments, 8-12 oil pressure indicator, 8-7 passive, 8-19 pitot-static system, 8-5 to 8-6 pressure indicating gauges, 8-7 radar, 8-16 to 8-18 rate of climb, 8-7 servicing system, 8-5 short-range communications, 8-13 to 8-14 sonobuoys, 8-19 to 8-20

Index-2 tachometer, 8-9 tactical air navigation system (TACAN), 8-14 turbine inlet temperature 8-8 turn and bank indicator, 8-12 use in fire control, 8-18 use in tactical air control, 8-18 vertical scale indicator, 7-9 to 7-10 Aircraft basic construction, 4-1 to 4-23 arresting gear, 4-14 bending, 4-20 catapult equipment, 4-15 compression, 4-20 fixed-wing aircraft, 4-1 to 4-15 flight control surfaces, 4-6 to 4-11 fuselage, 4-1 to 4-3 fuselage, 4-16 landing gear, 4-12 to 4-14 main rotor assembly, 4-17 to 4-18 materials of construction, 4-22 to 4-23 metallic materials, 4-22 to 4-23 nonmetallic materials, 4-23 pylon, 4-18 rotor head, 4-18 rotary wing, 4-17 rotary-wing aircraft, 4-15 to 4-19 secondary flight controls, 4-10 shear, 4-20 specific action of stresses, 4-20 to 4-21 stabilizers, 4-5 to 4-6 structural stress, 4-19 to 4-20 tail landing gear, 4-16 to 4-17 tail rotor assembly, 4-18 to 4-19 tension, 4-20 torsion, 4-21 varying stress, 4-21 wings, 4-4 to 4-5 Aircraft carrier, organization of an, 2-14 to 2-20 air department, 2-16 to 2-17 aircraft intermediate maintenance department (afloat), 2-19 to 2-20 carrier air wing, 2-15 to 2-17 dental department, 2-18 engineering department, 2-18 medical department, 2-18 navigation department, 2-18 operations department, 2-16 supply department, 2-18 weapons department, 2-18 Aircraft drawings, 5-6 Aircraft handling, air station, 11-19 to 11-20 Aircraft hardware, 6-1 to 6-31

Index-3 aircraft bolts, 6-7 to 6-10 aircraft electrical hardware, 6-23 to 6-25 blind rivets, 6-3 bonding, 6-25 camloc fasteners, 6-14 to 6-15 connectors, 6-24 cotter pins, 6-29 countersunk head rivets, 6-4 dzus fasteners, 6-15 electrical connectors, 6-24 flat head pins, 6-19 flexible connectors/clamps, 6-15 general safety wiring methods, 6-29 to 6-30 machine screws, 6-13 miscellaneous fasteners, 6-15 nonself-locking nuts, 6-11 nuts, 6-10 to 6-12 plain washers, 6-14 rivets, 6-1 to 6-5 rivnuts, 6-5 safety methods, 6-29 safety wiring, 6-30 safetying of nuts and bolts, 6-11 screws, 6-13 self-locking nuts, 6-11 self-tapping screws, 6-13 snap rings, 6-15 solid rivets, 6-1 special washers, 6-14 Aircraft hardware—Continued structural screws, 6-13 taper pins, 6-14 terminals, 6-24 threaded fasteners, 6-15 turnbuckles, 6-21 to 6-22 and 6-30 turnlock fasteners, 6-14 to 6-15 washers, 6-14 wire and cable, 6-24 Aircraft hoisting slings, 5-26 to 5-27 Aircraft jacking, 5-30 to 5-32 Aircraft ordnance, 9-1 to 9-77 20-mm automatic aircraft guns, 9-55 to 9-58 air launched guided missiles, 9-25 to 9-33 aircraft bomb-type ammunition, 9-2 aircraft fire-extinguisher cartridge, 9-64 aircraft laid mines, 9-17 to 9-18 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM), 9-38 to 9-39 ADU-299 missile launcher adapter, 9-55 antitank bomb cluster, 9-19 to 9-21 bomb ejector racks, 9-68 to 9-72 bomb racks, 9-64 to 9-72

Index-4 cartridges and cartridge-actuated devices (CADs), 9-63 to 9-64 CCU-45/B impulse cartridge 9-64 guided missile launchers, 9-45 to 9-55 full-scale practice bombs, 9-23 to 9-24 fuzing, 9-31 Harpoon, 9-33 to 9-35 high and low explosives, 9-3 High-Speed Antiradiation Missile (HARM), 9-39 to 9-40 identification and marking of ordnance, 9-5 impulse and delay cartridges, 9-64 laser guided bombs, 9-14 to 9-16 LAU-7 guided missile launcher, 9-46 to 9-48 LAU-115 guided missile launcher, 9-49 LAU-116 guided missile launcher, 9-50 LAU-117 guided missile launcher, 9-51 LAU-118 guided missile launcher, 9-51 LAU-127 guided missile launcher, 9-52 M279 guided missile launcher, 9-53 to 9-54 Maverick, 9-39 miscellaneous cartridges, 9-64 Mk 1 Mod 3 impulse cartridge, 9-64 Mk 19 Mod 0 impulse cartridge, 9-64 Mk 79 Mod 0 illumination signal kit, 9-60 to 9-62 Mk 80 (series) general-purpose bombs, 9-8 to 9-9 Mk 97 Mod 0 impulse cartridge, 9-64 MK 108 Mod 1 Illumination Signal Kit 9-62 to 9-63 Mk 124 Mod 0 marine smoke and illumination signal, 9-60 personnel escape device cartridges, 9-64 practice bombs, 9-22 to 9-24 pyrotechnics, 9-58 to 9-62 Sidewinder, 9-35 to 9-36 Sparrow, 9-32 to 9-33 subcaliber practice bombs, 9-22 terminology, 9-1 to 9-4 TOW missile launcher 9-54 to 9-55 Aircraft power plants, 7-1 to 7-17 engine identification, 7-13 to 7-17 ANA Bulletin No. 306M designation system, 7-13 to 7-15 accessory section, 7-12 Brayton cycle, the, 7-12 to 7-13 component controls, systems, and sections, 7-10 to 7-12 engine noise, 7-16 to 7-17 exhaust area, 7-16 fuel control, 7-10 gas turbine engines, 7-3 to 7-7 ignition system, 7-10 intake ducts, 7-16 jet propulsion engines, 7-2 to 7-12 lubrication system, 7-10 to 7-11 manufacturer's symbol, 7-13 and 7-15 MIL-STD-1812 designation system, 7-15 to 7-16

Index-5 model indicator, 7-16 model numbers, 7-14 power plant safety precautions, 7-16 special designations, 7-14 rocket engines, 7-1 to 7-3 type indicator, 7-15 to 7-16 type symbols, 7-13 Aircrew survival equipment, 12-1 to 12-59 anti-g coverall, 12-15 to 12-16 antiexposure coverall, 12-10 canopy, 12-22 cranial helmet assembly, 11-3 distress light (strobe), 12-49 flight boots, 12-4 flight clothing, 12-1 to 12-17 flight coveralls (cold weather), 12-3 to 12-4 flight coveralls (summer weight), 12-2 to 12-3 flight gloves, 12-4 flotation assembly, 12-36 to 12-40 individual survival kit, 12-51 to 12-53 integrated torso harness suit, the, 12-28 helicopter rescue strop, 12-53 helmet, 11-3 HGU-84/P helmet, 12-5 to 12-6 Life preservers, 12-36 Life preserver assembly LPU-32/P, 12-37 to 12-38 Life preserver assembly LPU-34/P, 12-38 to 12-39 Life preserver assembly LPU-36/P, 12-39 to 12-40 Mk 79 Mod 0 illumination signal kit, 12-48 Mk-124 Mod 0 marine smoke and illumination signal, 12-48 multiplace life rafts, 12-41 to 12-43 one-man life raft, 12-40 to 12-41 parachutes, 12-17 to 12-35 parachute container, 12-23 parachute harnesses, 12-23 to 12-24 personal survival equipment, 12-46 to 12-56 pilot chute, 12-21 rescue, 12-59 rescue equipment, 12-53 to 12-56 rescue net, 12-54 signaling mirror, 12-47 survival items, 12-51 Aircraft survival equipment—Continued suspension lines, 12-22 twelve-man life raft, 12-43 water bag, 12-52 Aircrew survival equipmentman, (PR), 1-19 Airfoil, the 3-3 to 3-4 Airman duties, 1-19 Airman rate, history of the, 1-12 Analysis methods, 5-45

Index-6 Aviation boatswain's mate, aircraft handling (ABH), 1-14 Aviation boatswain's mate, fuels (ABF), 1-14 Aviation boatswain's mate, launching and recovery equipment (ABE), 1-14 Aviation electrician's mate (AE), 1-15 Aviation electronics technician (AT[I] and AT[O]), 1-17 to 11-18 Aviation machinist's mate (AD), 1-15 Aviation maintenance administrationman, (AZ), 1-18 Aviation ordnanceman (AO), 1-17 Aviation ratings, 1-13 Aviation structural mechanic (AM), 1-16 Aviation structural mechanic, safety equipment (AME), 1-16 Aviation support equipment technician (AS), 1-17 Axle jacks, 5-30

B Batteries, aircraft storage, 8-1 to 8-3 battery safety precautions, 8-2 battery (lead-acid), 8-1 to 8-2 battery (nickel-cadmium), 8-2 Beech Aircraft Texan, T-6, 2-31 Bell Cobra, AH-1, 2-29 Bell Huey, UH-1, 2-29 Bell Jet Ranger, TH-57, 2-30 Boeing Clipper, C-40, 2-27 Boeing Poseidon, P-8, 2-25 Boeing Osprey, V-22, 2-30 Bolts, aircraft, 6-7 to 6-10 Bomb, body, 9-6 Bomb, fin assemblies, 9-10 to 9-13 Bomb, fuzing, 9-6 Bomb ejector rack, 9-68 to 9-72 Bomb rack, 9-64 to 9-72 Bomb-type ammunition, aircraft, 9-2 Bombs, Mk 80 (series) general-purpose, 9-7 to 9-13 Bombs, practice, 9-22 to 9-23 full-scale practice bombs, 9-23 to 9-24 subcaliber practice bombs, 9-22 Boots, flight, 12-4 Brayton cycle, the, 7-17 to 7-18 B-1 maintenance platform, 10-14 to 10-15 B-4 maintenance platform, 10-15

C CADs (cartridges and cartridge-actuated devices), 9-63 to 9-64 Carrier divisions, 2-19 to 2-20 Cartridges miscellaneous, 9-64 Catapult launching, 11-6 Chain of command, naval aviation, 2-1 CO2 fire extinguisher, 13-4 to 13-5 Communications and navigation equipment, 8-13 to 8-14 Computers, navigation, 8-15 to 8-16

Index-7 Cotter pins, 6-29 Coverall, antiexposure, 12-10 Coveralls, anti-g, 12-15 to 12-16 Cranes, crash and salvage, 10-4 to 10-5 Crash rescue and firefighting, 13-1 to 13-28 aircraft firefighting and rescue vehicles, 13-10 to 13-11 aircraft fire hazards, 13-11 to 13-13 armament, 13-15 battery switch, 13-15 carbon dioxide, 13-4 to 13-5 chemical foam (AFFF), 13-4 chemistry of fire, 13-1 to 13-2 classes of fire, 13-2 to 13-3 CO2 fire extinguisher, 13-4 to 13-5 dry chemical (PKP), 13-5 to 13-6 engine accessory section, 13-15 ejection seat, 13-16 extinguishing agents, 13-3 to 13-6 fire-fighting equipment, 13-6 to 13-9 fire-fighting techniques, 13-19 to 13-24 firemain system aboard ship, 13-6 fluid line identification, 13-16 to 13-18 fuel spills, 13-15 Halon 1211, 13-5 hot brakes, 13-21 to 13-23 hydraulic system, 13-16 operating vehicles, 11-1 to 11-2 ordnance, 13-13 Oshkosh T-3000 firefighting truck, 13-10 P-25 truck 13-10 to 13-11 protective clothing, 13-9 to 13-10 safety precautions, 11-18 to 11-19 seat-ejection, 13-16 selector valve, 13-15 tools, 13-8 to 13-9 water, 13-3 to 13-4 wheel fires, 13-21 to 13-22 Crash and salvage equipment, 10-4 to 10-5 A/S32A-35A (CVCC) aircraft crash handling and salvage crane, 10-4 A/S32A-36A (AACC) amphibious assault ship crane, 10-5

D Designations, guided missile and rocket, 9-27 Diagrams, 5-11 Directing taxiing aircraft, 11-6 to 11-7

E Echo principles, 8-16 to 8-17 Electrical failures, 5-18 Electrical power, emergency, 8-3 Electrical system hardware, aircraft, 6-23 to 6-25

Index-8 Electronic countermeasures, 8-19 Emergency recovery equipment, 11-9 to 11-10 Engine identification, 7-13 to 7-16 Engine instruments, 8-8 to 8-10 Equipment color and marking of, 11-3 to 11-5 Equipment, types of, 10-1 to 10-15 handling equipment, 10-1 to 10-3 servicing equipment, 10-7 to 10-12 Exhaust gas temperature indicator, 8-8 Explosives, high and low, 9-3 Extinguishing agents, 13-3 to 13-6 carbon dioxide, 13-4 to 13-5 chemical foam (AFFF), 13-4 dry chemical (PKP), 13-5 to 13-6 Halon 13-5 water, 13-4 to 13-5

F Fasteners, threaded, 6-15 Fire, chemistry of, 13-1 to13-3 Fire hazards, aircraft, 13-11 to 13-13 Fire-extinguisher cartridge, aircraft, 9-64 Fire-fighting and rescue vehicles, aircraft, 13-10 to 13-11 Firefighting equipment, 13-6 to 13-9 Firefighting techniques, 13-19 to 13-24 Firemain system aboard ship, 13-6 Fixed wing aircraft, 3-5 to 3-6 Flat head pins 6-19 Flexible connectors/clamps, 6-15 Flight clothing, 12-1 to 12-16 Flight coveralls (summer weight), 12-2 Flight, forces affecting, 3-4 drag, 3-4 lift, 3-4 thrust, 3-4 weight, 3-4 Flotation assembly, 11-3 Fluid contamination, 5-43 to 5-44 Fluid line identification, 13-16 to 13-18 Fluid sampling, 5-38 to 5-39 Forklift truck, 10-7 Fuel pressure indicator, 8-7 Fuel quantity indicator, 8-9 Fuels, types and identifying characteristics of various, 13-11 to 13-12

G Gas turbine engines, 7-3 to 7-7 General aircraft maintenance, 5-1 to 5-52 aircraft jacking, 5-30 to 5-32 aircraft drawings, 5-6 aircraft hoisting slings, 5-26 to 5-27

Index-9 analysis methods, 5-45 axle jacks, 5-30 diagrams, 5-11 electrical failures, 5-18 fluid contamination, 5-43 to 5-44 fluid sampling, 5-38 to 5-39 general hazards, 5-34 to 5-35 inorganic solid contamination, 5-43 interpretation of drawings, 5-8 jacking procedures, 5-35 to 5-38 lubrication, 5-19 lubricants, 5-19 to 5-25 methods of application, 5-21 maintenance practices, 5-40 to 5-41 maintenance procedures, 5-39 to 5-40 meaning of lines, 5-6 metallic contamination, 5-43 occupational awareness, 5-3 organic contamination, 5-42 particulate contamination, 5-41 to 5-42 portable oil diagnostic system, 5-46 to 5-47 preoperational inspection, 5-33 quality assurance (QA), 5-2 sampling points, 5-44 to 5-45 testing and operational checks, 5-17 tool containers, 5-1 tool control program, 5-1 troubleshooting aircraft systems, 5-13 troubleshooting procedures types of contamination, 5-41 wire rope, 5-28 to 5-29 work center responsibilities, 5-3 General hazards, 5-34 to 5-35 Global positioning system (GPS), 8-14 to 8-15 Glossary, AI-1 to AI-7 Gloves, flight, 12-4 to 12-5 Grumman Hawkeye, E-2, 2-26 Grumman Greyhound, C-2, 2-26 Grumman Prowler, EA-6B, 2-24 Guided missile and rocket designations, 9-27 Guided missile launchers, 9-45 to 9-55 Guided missiles, air-launched, 9-25 to 9-33 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM), 9-38 to 9-39 Harpoon, 9-33 to 9-35 High-Speed Antiradiation Missile (HARM), 9-39 to 9-40 Maverick, 9-39 Sidewinder, 9-35 to 9-36 Sparrow, 9-32 to 9-33 Guns, 20-mm automatic aircraft, 9-55 to 9-58 Gyro compass, 8-12 Gyroscopes, 8-11 to 8-12

Index-10

H Hand signals, 11-10 and 11-23 HARM (High-Speed Antiradiation Missile), 9-39 to 9-40 Helicopter handling, 11-21 Helicopter rescue strop, 12-53 Helmet(s), 12-5 to 12-6 Horizontal situation indicator, 8-12 Hydraulic jacks, 10-14 Hydraulic pressure indicator, 8-7 to 8-8 Hydraulic power supply, 10-10

I IFF (identification friend or foe), 8-18 to 8-19 Illumination devices, hand-held, 9-58 to 9-63 Impulse and delay cartridges, 9-64 Inorganic solid contamination, 5-43 Interpretation of drawings, 5-8

J Jacking procedures, 5-35 to 5-38 Jet propulsion engines, 7-2 to 7-12 gas turbine engines, 7-3 to 7-7 rocket engines, 7-1 to 7-3

L Landing gear, fixed-wing aircraft, 4-12 to 4-13 Landing gear group, rotary-wing aircraft, 4-16 Laser guided bombs, 9-14 to 9-16 Leadership, 1-20 Life preservers, 12-36 Life preserver assembly LPU-32/P, 12-37 to 12-38 Life preserver assembly LPU-34/P, 12-38 to 12-39 Life preserver assembly LPU-36/P, 12-39 to 12-40 Life rafts, 12-40 to 12-43 multiplace life rafts, 12-41 to 12-43 one-man life raft, 12-40 to 12-41 Lockheed Hercules, C-130, 2-27 Lockheed Martin Lightning, F-35, 2-23 Lockheed Orion, P-3, 2-25 Lubrication, 5-19 Lubricants, 5-19 to 5-25 methods of application, 5-21

M MAD (magnetic anomaly detection), 8-20 Magnetic (standby) compass, 8-12 Maintenance practices, 5-40 to 5-41 Maintenance procedures, 5-39 to 5-40 Maintenance requirements, 10-15 to 10-16 Maintenance platforms, 10-14 to 10-15

Index-11 McDonnell-Douglas Goshawk, T-45, 2-31 McDonnell-Douglas Harrier II, AV-8, 2-24 McDonnell-Douglas Hornet, F/A-18, 2-23 Meaning of lines, 5-6 Metallic contamination, 5-43 Metallic materials, 4-22 to 4-23 Mines, aircraft laid, 9-17 to 9-18 Mk 62, 9-17 Mk 65, 9-18 Mission of naval aviation, 1-1 to 1-2 history of naval aviation 1-2 to 1-12 description of aviation ratings, 1-14 to 1-19 historic events of naval aviation, 1-2 to 1-12 history of the airman rate, 1-12 history of naval aviation, 1-2 to 1-12 leadership, 1-20 major naval aviation battles, 1-2 to 1-12 military and professional requirements, 1-20 Navy training courses, 1-20 sources of information, 1-20 studying for advancement, 1-20 training, 1-19 to 1-20 Motion, laws of, 3-1 to 3-2 Newton's first law of motion, 3-1 Newton's second law of motion, 3-1 Newton's third law of motion, 3-2 Multiengine aircraft handling, 11-20 to 11-21

N Naval Aircrewman (AW), 1-18 Aircrewman Mechanical (AWF) , 1-18 Aircrewman Operator (AWO), 1-18 Aircrewman Tactical Helicopter (AWR), 1-18 Aircrewman Helicopter (AWS), 1-18 Aircrewman Avionics (AWV), 1-18 Naval air facility, 2-9 Naval air station (NAS) organization, 2-3 to 2-9 administration department, 2-4 air operations department, 2-5 comptroller department, 2-4 dental department, 2-5 fleet readiness center, 2-6 to 2-8 medical department, 2-5 Naval aviation depots, 2-9 public works department, 2-5 security department, 2-4 to 2-5 supply department, 2-5 weapons department, 2-5 Naval aviation, history of, 1-2 to 1-12 Naval aviation, the mission of, 1-1 to 1-2 Navigational instruments, 8-12

Index-12 Nitrogen service unit (NAN-4), 10-12 Nonmetallic materials, 4-23 Nuts, 6-10 to 6-11 nonself-locking nuts, 6-11 self-locking nuts, 6-11

O Occupational awareness, 5-3 Oil pressure indicator, 8-7 Ordnance, aircraft, 9-1 to 9-77 Ordnance, identification and marking of, 9-5 Organic contamination, 5-42 Organization of naval aviation, 2-1 to 2-31 administration department, 2-4 air department, 2-16 to 2-18 air operations department, 2-5 aircraft intermediate maintenance department (afloat), 2-19 to 2-20 aircraft squadron departments, 2-12 to 2-14 carrier air wing, 2-15 to 2-17 carrier divisions, 2-19 to 2-20 carrier squadrons, 2-9 to 2-10 commanding officer (CO), 2-11 composite squadrons, 2-10 comptroller department, 2-4 dental department, 2-5 dental department, 2-18 designation and types of naval aircraft, 2-21 to 2-31 engineering department, 2-18 executive officer (XO), 2-11 maintenance administration, 2-13 maintenance/material control officer, 2-12 maintenance officer, 2-11 Organization of naval aviation—Continued medical department, 2-5 medical department, 2-18 naval air facility, 2-9 naval air station (NAS) organization, 2-3 to 2-7 naval aviation chain of command, 2-2 naval aviation depots, 2-9 navigation department, 2-18 noncombatant squadrons, 2-10 operations department, 2-12 organization of a squadron, 2-10 to 2-14 organization of an aircraft carrier, 2-14 to 2-20 patrol squadrons, 2-10 public works department, 2-5 quality assurance/analysis, 2-7 security department, 2-4 to 2-5 supply department, 2-5 supply department, 2-18 types of divisions, 2-13

Index-13 types of squadrons, 2-9 to 2-10 typical carrier schedule, 2-20 weapons department, 2-5 and 2-18 Oxygen servicing unit, 10-11

P Parachute container, 12-23 Parachute harnesses, 12-23 to 12-24 Parachutes, 12-17 to 12-35 Particulate contamination, 5-41 to 5-42 Personnel escape device cartridges, 9-64 Pilot chute, 12-21 Pitot-static system, 8-5 to 8-6 airspeed and mach number indicator, 8-6 to 8-7 altimeter, 8-6 rate of climb, 8-7 Plane-handling crews, 11-4 Portable oil diagnostic system, 5-46 to 5-47 Power generators, emergency, 8-3 to 8-4 Preoperational inspection, 5-33 Principles of flight, 3-1 to 3-8 airflow around an airfoil, 3-3 to 3-4 airfoil, the, 3-3 to 3-4 airfoil terminology, 3-3 Bernoulle's principle, 3-2 directional control, 3-7 drag, 3-4 forces affecting flight, 3-4 hovering, 3-7 lateral axis, 3-5 laws of motion, 3-1 to 3-2 lift, 3-4 and 3-6 to 3-7 longitudinal axis, 3-5 Newton's first law of motion, 3-1 Newton's second law of motion, 3-2 Newton's third law of motion, 3-2 physical laws affecting aerodynamics, 3-1 to 3-2 rotational axes, 3-5 to 3-6 thrust, 3-4 torque reaction, 3-7 to 3-8 weight, 3-4 vertical axis, 3-5 Protective clothing, 13-9 to 13-10 Pyrotechnics, 9-58 to 9-62

Q Quality assurance (QA), 5-2

R Radar, 8-16 to 8-18 References, AII-1 to AII-3

Index-14 Rescue equipment, 12-53 to 12-56 Rivets, blind, 6-3 Rivets, solid, 6-1 dimpled rivets, 6-2 plain rivets, 6-2 raised cross rivets, 6-2 raised dashes rivets, 6-2 raised teat rivets, 6-2 Rivnuts, 6-5 Rocket engines, 7-1 to 7-3 Rotational axes, 3-5 lateral axis, 3-5 longitudinal axis, 3-5 vertical axis, 3-5 Rotor head, 4-18

S Safety precautions, general flight deck, 11-18 Safety precautions, power plant, 7-16 Sampling points, 5-44 to 5-45 Schedule, typical carrier, 2-20 Schools, Navy, 1-13 Screws, 6-13 self-tapping screws, 6-13 structural screws, 6-13 Shipboard fire-fighting vehicle, A/S32P-25, 10-5 to 10-6 Sikorsky Sea Hawk, H-60, 2-28 Sikorsky Sea Stallion, H-53, 2-28 Snap rings, 6-19 Sonobuoys, 8-19 to 8-20 Spotting aircraft, 11-9 Squadron, organization of a, 2-10 to 2-14 aircraft squadron departments, 2-12 to 2-13 commanding officer (CO), 2-11 executive officer (XO), 2-11 maintenance administration, 2-13 maintenance/material control officer, 2-12 maintenance officer, 2-11 quality assurance analysis, 2-l3 types of divisions, 2-13 to 2-14 Squadrons, types of, 2-9 to 2-10 carrier squadrons, 2-9 to 2-10 composite squadrons, 2-10 patrol squadrons, 2-10 Structural stress, 4-19 to 4-20 bending, 4-20 compression, 4-20 shear, 4-20 tension, 4-20 torsion, 4-21 varying stress, 4-21

Index-15 Support equipment, 10-1 to 10-20 A/M24M-5 static frequency converter, 10-9 A/M26U-4 (NAN-4) nitrogen servicing unit, 10-12 A/M32C-21 air-conditioner, 10-13 A/M32C-23 Large-Land-Based Air-Conditioner, 10-13 A/M27T-14 electrical hydraulic portable power supply, 10-10 A/M27T-15 diesel hydraulic portable power supply, 10-11 A/S32A-31A aircraft towing tractor, 10-1 A/S32A-32 tow tractor, 10-2 A/S32A-35A (CVCC) aircraft crash and salvage crane, 10-4 A/S32A-36A (CVCC) aircraft crash and salvage crane, 10-5 A/S32A-45 mid-range tow tractor (MRTT), 10-3 A/S32A-48 large land-based tow tractor, 10-3 A/S32M-19, heavy maintenance crane (HMC), 10-6 A/S32P-25 shipboard fire-fighting vehicle, 10-5 A/U26U-1 oxygen servicing unit, 10-11 catapult launching, 11-6 cold weather procedures, 11-14 to 11-15 general safety precautions for handling aircraft aboard carriers, 11-18 to 11-19 hazards of SE, 11-2 helicopter handling, 11-22 helicopter tie-down and securing procedures, 11-22 heavy weather procedures, 11-13 to 11-14 hydraulic jacks, 10-14 landing procedure, 11-7 to 11-8 launching procedure, 11-6 to 11-7 maintenance requirements, 10-15 MSU-200NAV Air Start Unit, 10-9 multiengine aircraft handling 11-20 to 11-21 NC-10C mobile electric power plant, 10-8 normal weather conditions, 11-13 operating equipment around aircraft, 11-1 to 11-2 plane-handling crews, 11-4 preoperational maintenance, 10-15 qualifications for operating SE, 10-16 to 10-17 recovery, 11-8 securing aircraft aboard carriers, 11-12 securing aircraft ashore, 11-21 servicing equipment, 10-7 to 10-12 (SHH) shipboard helo handler, 10-2 spotting aircraft, 11-9 TMU 70 low-loss, closed-loop, liquid oxygen storage tank, 10-12 Survival equipment, personal, 12-46 to 12-56

T TACAN (tactical air navigation system), 8-14 Tachometer, 8-9 Tail rotor assembly, 4-18 to 4-19 pylon, 4-18 rotary rudder blades, 4-17 to 4-18 rotary rudder head, 4-18

Index-16 Taper pins, 6-19 Testing and operational checks, 5-17 Tool containers, 5-1 Tool control program, 5-1 Tractors, 10-1 Training, 1-19 to 1-20 Training courses, Navy, 1-20 Troubleshooting aircraft systems, 5-13 Troubleshooting procedures, 5-13 Turbine inlet temperature indicator, 8-8 Turn and bank indicator, 8-12 Turnbuckles, 6-21 to 6-22 Turnlock fasteners, 6-14 to 6-15 Camloc fasteners, 6-14 to 6-15 Dzus fasteners, 6-15 Types of contamination, 5-41

V Vertical axis, 3-5 Vertical scale indicator, 7-9 to 7-10

W Washers, 6-14 ball socket washers, 6-14 countersunk plain washers, 6-14 special washers, 6-14 tapper pin washers, 6-14 Wire rope, 5-28 to 5-29 Work center responsibilities, 5-3

End of Book Questions Chapter 1 Mission and History of Naval Aviation Introduction

1-1. In what year was the Navy first interested in airplanes as a naval weapon?

A. 1888 B. 1898 C. 1910 D. 1911

1-2. Who staged the first demonstration of the new flying machine?

A. Glenn brothers B. Wright brothers C. Ely brothers D. Curtiss brothers

1-3. Eugene Ely first flew a biplane from a wooden platform off of what ship?

A. USS Pennsylvania B. USS Langley C. USS Birmingham D. USS Jupiter

1-4. What was the name of the Navy's first angled deck aircraft carrier?

A. USS Antietam B. USS Pennsylvania C. USS Langley D. USS Lexington

1-5. What was the first operationally equipped jet plane in history to fly faster than 1,000 mph?

A. F9F-2/5 Panther B. FJ-1 Fury C. F8U-1 Crusader D. F2H-1 Banshee

1-6. In 1959, four naval aviators were selected as prospective astronauts for what space project?

A. Apollo B. Gemini C. Saturn D. Mercury

1-7. Who was the first American and naval aviator to go into space?

A. Neal Armstrong B. Alan B. Shepard Jr. C. Edwin Aldrin D. Michael Collins

1-8. What major battle in 1942 was the first of opposing ships NOT making contact with each other?

A. Iwo Jima B. Coral Sea C. Midway D. Guadalcanal

1-9. In October 1943, the Navy accepted its first helicopter. What designation was assigned to that helicopter?

A. F6F B. YR-4B C. PB4Y D. DTBM

1-10. The Westinghouse 19A jet engine was developed for the Navy in what year?

A. 1943 B. 1953 C. 1963 D. 1973

1-11. What rating makes visual and instrumental observations of weather and sea conditions?

A. AB B. AC C. AZ D. AG

1-12. What rating packs and rigs parachutes and life rafts?

A. AG B. AW C. PR D. AO

1-13. Which of the following tasks is performed by the ABH rating?

A. Direct the movement and spotting of aircraft B. Rig, inspect, and proof-load cables and fittings C. Operate catapult launch and retract panels D. Operate aviation fueling systems

1-14. What rating maintains and repairs gasoline engines and associated automotive systems?

A. AM B. AS C. AE D. AT

1-15. In what total number of service ratings is the Aviation Boatswain's Mate (AB) divided?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

1-16. Which of the following ratings operates, maintains, and performs maintenance on aviation fueling and lubricating oil systems?

A. ABE B. ABF C. ABH D. AWF

1-17. What year was the Airman rate established?

A. 1938 B. 1948 C. 1956 D. D966

1-18. What year was the paygrades E-8 and E-9 (senior and master chief petty officer) established?

A. 1911 B. 1942 C. 1948 D. 1958

1-19. What year was the Naval Aviation Museum established at the Naval Air Station, Pensacola, Florida?

A. 1942 B. 1952 C. 1962 D. 1972

1-20. What ship conducted contingent operations during the Iranian hostage crisis?

A. USS Saratoga B. USS Lexington C. USS Kitty Hawk D. USS Washington

1-21. How many service ratings is the AW rate made up of?

A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7

1-22. Which of the following rates performs intermediate-level maintenance on aviation electronic components?

A. AM B. AT(I) C. AT(O) D. AWO

1-23. Which Battle in 1942 caused the Japanese to abandon their attempt to land at Port Moresby?

A. Champlain B. Guadalcanal C. Midway D. Coral Sea

1-24. Which of the following ratings, fit and maintain oxygen masks, flight clothing, and anti-exposure suits?

A. AME B. PR C. AT D. AM

End of Book Questions Chapter 2 Organization of Naval Aviation Mission and History of Naval Aviation

2-1. Who is the senior officer in the Department of the Navy?

A. AMO B. CNO C. CO D. MMCO

2-2. What officer is next in the chain of command after the executive officer?

A. CO B. DO C. MO D. SO

2-3. What person is next in the chain of command after the division Chief?

A. AMO B. CO C. DCPO D. DO

2-4. What is the highest level of maintenance performed at a naval air station?

A. Depot B. Intermediate C. Organizational D. Scheduled

2-5. What department is responsible for preventing sabotage, espionage, theft, and fire?

A. Administration B. Comptroller C. Human Resources D. Security

2-6. What department is responsible for mail distribution, communications, and maintenance of personnel files?

A. Admin B. Comptroller C. Human Resources D. Security

2-7. What department consists of utilities, transportation, and engineering?

A. Admin B. Comptroller C. Public works D. Supply

2-8. What department’s primary purpose is preventing defects?

A. Admin B. Air operations C. Quality assurance D. Security

2-9. What level of maintenance is performed by a squadron?

A. Depot B. Intermediate C. Organizational D. TBM

2-10. What level of maintenance is performed at a Naval Air Facility (NAF)?

A. Organizational and intermediate B. Organizational and depot C. Intermediate and depot D. Scheduled and organizational

2-11. What type of squadron’s mission is strike fighter?

A. VP B. VFA C. VAQ D. VAW

2-12. What type of squadron provides training to new pilots?

A. VP B. VT C. VX D. VR

2-13. What type of squadron’s mission is airborne early-warning?

A. HS B. HSM C. VFA D. VAW

2-14. What officer in the maintenance department is responsible for production?

A. CO B. MO C. MMCO D. DO

2-15. In what division is the power plants branch?

A. Maintenance admin B. Aircraft C. Avionics D. Line

2-16. In what division is the plane captains’ branch?

A. Maintenance admin B. Aircraft C. Avionics D. Line

2-17. In what division is the airframes branch?

A. Maintenance admin B. Aircraft C. Avionics D. Line

2-18. In what department is responsible for readiness and tactical efficiency of the squadron?

A. Operations B. Quality assurance C. Safety D. Target

2-19. In what department is the avionics/armament division?

A. Administrative B. Maintenance C. Safety D. Target

2-20. In what department is Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures (NATOPS)?

A. Administrative B. Maintenance C. Safety D. Target

2-21. In what division is the electronics branch?

A. Admin B. Aircraft C. Avionics/Armament D. Line

2-22. What division on an aircraft carrier is responsible for the maintenance of arresting gear?

A. V-1 B. V-2 C. V-3 D. V-4

2-23. What division on an aircraft carrier is responsible for aircraft crash, fire, and rescue?

A. V-1 B. V-2 C. V-3 D. V-4

2-24. What division on an aircraft carrier is responsible for the handling of all aircraft on the flight deck?

A. V-1 B. V-2 C. V-3 D. V-4

2-25. What division on an aircraft carrier is responsible for operation and upkeep of the carrier’s aviation fuel system?

A. V-1 B. V-2 C. V-3 D. V-4

2-26. What department is responsible for all machinery, propulsion, ventilation, water supply, piping systems, electrical systems, and electronic devices on board the ship?

A. Air B. AIMD C. Dental D. Engineering

2-27. What department is responsible to the CO for the safe navigation and piloting of the aircraft carrier?

A. Air B. AIMD C. Engineering D. Navigation

2-28. In what AIMD division is powerplants?

A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4

2-29. In what AIMD division is QA?

A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4

2-30. In what AIMD division is SE?

A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4

2-31. In what AIMD division is avionics?

A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4

2-32. In what AIMD division is airframes?

A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4

2-33. What period of an aircraft carrier cycle is the ship checked for satisfactory operation of machinery, equipment, and systems?

A. Deployment B. Repair and refitting C. Shakedown D. Yard

2-34. What period of an aircraft carrier cycle is the carrier refitted and re-supplied?

A. Deployment B. Home port C. Shakedown D. Tactical

2-35. What is the designation of a transport aircraft?

A. C B. E C. F D. T

2-36. What is the designation of a research aircraft?

A. C B. E C. T D. X

2-37. What is the designation of a tanker aircraft?

A. A B. E C. K D. T

2-38. What is the designation of a cold weather aircraft?

A. L B. P C. Q D. R

2-39. Who is the manufacturer of the P-8 Poseidon?

A. Boeing B. Grumman C. Lockheed D. North American

2-40. Who is the manufacturer of the C-40 Clipper?

A. Boeing B. Grumman C. Lockheed D. North American

2-41. Who is the manufacturer of the UH-1 Huey?

A. Beech B. Bell C. Grumman D. Lockheed

2-42. Who is the manufacturer of the C-130 Hercules?

A. Beech B. Bell C. Lockheed D. North American

2-43. Which of the following aircraft was manufactured by McDonnell-Douglas?

A. AV-8 Harrier B. E-2 Hawkeye C. T-34 Mentor D. T-6 Texan

2-44. Which of the following aircraft was manufactured by Beech?

A. AV-8 Harrier B. E-2 Hawkeye C. T-34 Mentor D. T-45 Goshawk

2-45. Which of the following aircraft was manufactured by Grumman?

A. AV-8 Harrier B. E-2 Hawkeye C. T-34 Mentor D. T-6 Texan

2-46. What is the design number of the Orion?

A. C-2 B. C-12 C. P-3 D. P-8

2-47. What is the design number of the Sea Stallion?

A. H-53 B. H-57 C. F/A-18 D. F-35

2-48. What is the design number of the Greyhound?

A. AV-8 B. AH-1 C. C-2 D. E-2

2-49. What is the design number of the Jet Ranger?

A. AV-8 B. AH-1 C. H-57 D. H-60

2-50. What aircraft is armed with the M61A1 (20 mm) gun?

A. F/A-18 B. F-35 C. C-12 D. C-130

2-51. What aircraft is armed with the GAU-22 25 mm gun?

A. F/A-18 B. F-35 C. C-12 D. C-130

2-52. What aircraft was originally designed based on a French engine concept, which was adopted and improved upon by the British?

A. AV-8 B. C-12 C. C-130 D. F/A-18

2-53. What aircraft has a 24-foot revolving radar dish for tracking, detecting, or directing targets?

A. AV-8 B. AH-1 C. C-2 D. E-2

2-54. What aircraft can be armed with 2 x 7.62 mm M60 machine guns, or 2 x 7.62 mm GAU-17/A machine guns?

A. AV-8 B. EA-6 C. UH-1 D. T-6

2-55. What aircraft’s primary mission is to provide intermediate and advanced strike fighter training?

A. AV-8 B. EA-6 C. T-45 D. T-6

End of Book Questions Chapter 3 Principles of Flight

3-1. What is the definition of motion?

A. The act or process of changing place or position B. The act or process of achieving inertia C. The overcoming of force D. The resistance to force

3-2. Which of the following terms refers to Newton's first law of motion?

A. Force B. Action and reaction C. Inertia D. Gravity

3-3. On a fixed wing aircraft, which of the following components (or more applicable/appropriate wording; not sure what all alts have in common) is an example of an airfoil?

A. Landing gear B. Nose C. Rotor blade D. Wing

3-4. What is the front edge or surface of the airfoil?

A. Camber B. Chord line C. Leading edge D. Trailing edge

3-5. What is the imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil?

A. Camber B. Chord line C. Leading edge D. Trailing edge

3-6. What is the rear edge or surface of the airfoil?

A. Camber B. Chord line C. Leading edge D. Trailing edge

3-7. What is the curve of departure from a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil?

A. Camber B. Chord line C. Leading edge D. Trailing edge

3-8. What force acts in an upward direction to support the aircraft in the air?

A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Weight

3-9. What force acts downward on the aircraft?

A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Weight

3-10. What force tends to hold an aircraft back?

A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Weight

3-11. What force is developed by the aircraft’s engines?

A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Weight

3-12. What axis is the pivot point about which an aircraft rolls?

A. Lateral B. Longitudinal C. Upward D. Vertical

3-13. What axis runs from the top to the bottom of an aircraft?

A. Lateral B. Longitudinal C. Upward D. Vertical

3-14. What axis is the pivot point about which the aircraft pitches?

A. Lateral B. Longitudinal C. Upward D. Vertical

3-15. What movement is associated with the vertical axis?

A. Pitch B. Roll C. Turn D. Yaw

3-16. What movement is associated with the lateral axis?

A. Pitch B. Roll C. Turn D. Yaw

3-17. What movement is associated with the longitudinal axis?

A. Pitch B. Roll C. Turn D. Yaw

3-18. What component provides motion on an aircraft?

A. Engine B. Landing gear C. Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) D. Wing

3-19. What reaction happens when the helicopter’s main rotor turns in one direction, and the body of the helicopter rotates in the opposite direction?

A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Torque

3-20. What component does the pilot tilt to control the direction of flight in a helicopter?

A. Main rotor B. Pedal C. Tail D. Wing

3-21. By what method is lift changed on a helicopter?

A. By increasing the drag B. By decreasing the drag C. By increasing the angle of attack D. By decreasing the angle of attack

3-22. What term is defined as maintaining a position above a fixed spot on the ground?

A. Angle of attack B. Hovering C. Lift D. Thrust

3-23. Changing the angle of attack cause the aircraft to pivot on what axis?

A. Horizontal or lift B. Lateral or pitch C. Longitudinal or roll D. Vertical or yaw

3-24. When you lower the right wing of the aircraft and the left wing rises, on what axis will the aircraft pivot?

A. Horizontal or lift B. Lateral or pitch C. Longitudinal or roll D. Vertical or yaw

End of Book Questions Chapter 4 Aircraft Basic Construction

4-1. What advantage does the helicopter has over conventional aircraft?

A. Lift and control are independent of forward speed B. Lift and control are dependent on forward speed C. Speed and forward flight are dependent on roll D. Lift and speed are dependent on roll

4-2. What aircraft structure is designed to transmit engine loads, stresses, and vibrations to the aircraft structure?

A. Fuselage B. Landing gear C. Nacelle D. Tires

4-3. On a semimonocoque fuselage, what component absorbs the primary bending loads?

A. Engine mounts B. Fuselage C. Landing gear D. Longerons

4-4. What is the main structure on an aircraft to which all other units attach?

A. Engine mount B. Fuselage C. Nacelle D. Wing

4-5. How many classes is the monocoque fuselage divided into?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

4-6. Fighter and small aircraft fuselages are usually constructed in how many sections?

A. Two or less B. Two or more C. Three or less D. Three or more

4-7. What is a nacelle’s primary use?

A. Houses the engine B. Houses the landing gear C. Houses the stabilizer D. Houses the wing

4-8. What is used to operate the rudder on all types of aircraft?

A. Pedals B. Speed brakes C. Trim tabs D. Landing gear

4-9. What is used to give the aircraft extra lift?

A. Pedals B. Speed brakes C. Trim tabs D. Wing flaps

4-10. What is used to reduce the speed of an aircraft?

A. Pedals B. Speed brakes C. Trim tabs D. Wing flaps

4-11. In what manner is most aircraft landing gear actuated?

A. Electrically B. Hydraulically C. Manually D. Pneumatically

4-12. What does a snubber on the arresting gear of an aircraft meter?

A. Electricity B. Fire C. Hydraulic fluid D. Water

4-13. What allows the aircraft to be secured to the carrier deck for full-power turnup of the engine prior to takeoff?

A. Holdback assembly B. Lateral C. Snubb D. Tie down chain

4-14. What does the main landing gear of a helicopter consist of?

A. Forward and aft double-wheel assemblies B. Left and right double-wheel assemblies C. Forward and aft single-wheel assemblies D. Left and right single-wheel assemblies

4-15. How many degrees can a tail wheel on a helicopter rotate?

A. 180 B. 360 C. 120 D. 320

4-16. What provides deicing to an H-60 main rotor blade?

A. Heater coil B. Electronic pressure C. Hydraulic pressure D. Heater mat

4-17. What stress on an aircraft is created when force is moved toward each other to squeeze the material?

A. Bending B. Compression C. Shear D. Tension

4-18. What stress is caused by stretching or pulling at an aircraft?

A. Bending B. Compression C. Shear D. Tension

4-19. Cutting a piece of paper with a pair of scissors is an example of what stress?

A. Bending B. Compression C. Shear D. Tension

4-20. What stress is a result of a twisting force?

A. Bending B. Compression C. Tension D. Torsion

End of Book Questions Chapter 5 General Aircraft Maintenance

5-1. Ensuring that tools are procured and issued in a controlled manner consistent with the approved tool control plan is the responsibility of what officer?

A. The maintenance officer B. The material control officer C. The quality assurance officer D. The assistant maintenance officer

5-2. Which of the following reports should be used to report poor quality tools to FLEMATSUPPO?

A. EI B. HMR C. CAT I QDR D. CAT II QDR

5-3. Upon task assignment, you must record the tool container number on what copy of the VIDS/MAF?

A. Copy 1 B. Copy 2 C. Copy 3 D. Copy 5

5-4. Who is responsible for training work center personnel in the use of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)?

A. The safety officer B. The division officer C. The work center supervisor D. The maintenance control chief

5-5. What system/program is used to acquire, store, and disseminate data on hazardous materials procured for use?

A. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) B. Navy Occupational Health and Safety (NAVOSH) C. Hazardous Material Information program (HMIP) D. Hazardous Material Information System (HMIS)

5-6. What section of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identifies personal protective equipment required?

A. Section II B. Section V C. Section VII D. Section VIII

5-7. What safety term is used to indicate an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that is essential to emphasize?

A. NOTE B. WARNING C. CAUTION D. ALERT

5-8. What type of drawing is used to show details of parts, components, and other objects?

A. Pictorial B. Orthographic C. Block D. Exploded View

5-9. Efficient troubleshooting of an electrically controlled hydraulic system may require you to use a multimeter for which of the following reasons?

A. Check frequency B. Check voltage and continuity C. Relieve the AE of solving the problems D. To read the electrical portion of a schematic

5-10. After conducting a visual inspection and an operational check, what troubleshooting step should be next?

A. Locate the trouble B. Isolate the trouble C. Correct the trouble D. Classify the trouble

5-11. You are troubleshooting a malfunction and conducting the final operational check. What is the minimum number of times the affected system must be actuated?

A. 5 B. 7 C. 3 D. 10

5-12. How many basic categories of malfunctions are there?

A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3

5-13. What is the total number of common methods used to apply lubricants?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

5-14. Flush lubrication fittings are used for which of the following reasons?

A. To prevent interference with moving parts B. To reach areas that are normally easy access C. To reach areas that are normally hard to access D. To lubricate areas that do not require much lubrication

5-15. To determine the type of lubricant and equipment to be used in a given area of an aircraft, you should refer to which of the following publications?

A. MIM only B. MRC only C. Both 1 and 2 above D. COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 (series)

5-16. How many forms of lubricants are there?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

5-17. Why are lubricants necessary in aircraft components?

A. To cool parts B. To minimize friction C. To prevent corrosion D. To prevent wear

5-18. What document should you consult for safety precautions for a specific lubricant?

A. NAVAIR 01-1A-509 B. Aircraft MRC C. Aircraft MIM D. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

5-19. Which of the following is never a type of aircraft lifting sling?

A. Wire rope B. Snatch cable C. Fabric webbing D. Structural steel

5-20. To find load testing and inspection information on aircraft lifting slings, you should consult what publication?

A. NAVAIR 01-1A-17 B. NAVAIR 01-1A-20 C. NAVAIR 17-1-114 D. NAVAIR 17-15E-52

5-21. A group of wires twisted together is known by what name?

A. A wire rope B. A strand C. A cable D. A core

5-22. In reference to a cable, what does the term "bird cage" mean?

A. A kink that has been pulled through in order to straighten a cable B. A cable that is manufactured to look like a bird cage C. A cable that is improperly stored D. A neatly coiled cable

5-23. You should examine and lubricate all lifting slings at least how often?

A. Once a week B. Twice a week C. Once a month D. Twice a month

5-24. Hoisting restrictions for a specific type of aircraft can be found in which of the following publications?

A. NAVAIR 01-1A-8 B. NAVAIR 01-1A-17 C. NAVAIR 15-02-500B D. Applicable MIM

5-25. What are the two types of aircraft jacks used by the Navy?

A. T-bar and camel B. Hand carried and T-bar C. Horseshoe and camel D. Axle and airframe (tripod)

5-26. Aircraft jacks are serviced with what type of fluid?

A. General-purpose oil B. Synthetic oil C. Aircraft hydraulic fluid D. Support equipment hydraulic fluid

5-27. A tripod jack consists of what total number of basic assemblies?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

5-28. A leg extension kit for a variable height tripod jack will increase its effective height by what total amount of inches?

A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24

5-29. You are using three tripod jacks to jack an aircraft aboard a ship. What is the minimum number of tie-down chains that will be attached to all the jacks?

A. 3 B. 9 C. 12 D. 18

5-30. During jacking operation, the tie-down chain preload is too high when which of the following conditions exists?

A. The jack safety valve bypasses fluid B. The first stage locknut does not turn C. The tensioning grip cannot be rotated by hand D. The jack baseplate is seated flush with the deck

5-31. Special inspections for tripod jacks are required at what intervals?

A. Every 13 weeks B. Every 10 weeks C. Every 8 weeks D. Every 7 weeks

5-32. What is the maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate level for naval aircraft?

A. Class 3 B. Class 5 C. Class 6 D. Class 10

5-33. What is the maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate level for support equipment (SE)?

A. Class 3 B. Class 5 C. Class 6 D. Class 10

5-34. What is the primary use for MIL-PRF-46170D hydraulic fluid?

A. Extremely low surrounding temperatures B. Preservative hydraulic fluid C. Principal hydraulic fluid used in military aircraft D. Support equipment only

5-35. What is the first step in periodic fluid surveillance?

A. Analyze fluid sample B. Certify cleanliness C. Obtain fluid sample D. Replace filter

5-36. What is the size of particulate matter measured in?

A. Centimeter B. Millimeter C. Megahertz D. Microns

5-37. What does the presence of air in a hydraulic system cause?

A. Abraded synthetic rubber seals B. Spongy response during system operation C. Undesired oxidation D. Rust-like corrosion

5-38. What does the presence of water in a hydraulic system cause?

A. Abraded synthetic rubber seals B. Spongy response during system operation C. Undesired oxidation D. Tight response during system operation

5-39. What is a physical point in a hydraulic system from which small amounts of hydraulic fluid are drawn to analyze it for contamination?

A. Fluid sampling point B. Fluid system point C. Fluid contamination point D. Fluid access point

5-40. Most fleet equipment is calibrated so that the smallest particle counted has an effective diameter of how many microns?

A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7

End of Book Questions Chapter 6 Aircraft Hardware

6-1. What position of a rivet identification code identifies the length of the rivet?

A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

6-2. A 5056 rivet is used to join magnesium alloy materials because of which of the following factors?

A. Tensile strength B. Cold working C. Heat resistance D. Corrosion resistance

6-3. Which of the following characteristics is NEVER a factor in the classification of solid rivets?

A. Size B. Color C. Material D. Head shape

6-4. Which of the following precautions should you take when using a ® (pin) rivet?

A. Never use them on thick sheets B. Never use them on aluminum alloys C. Never use them with an aluminum collar D. Never use them where the grip length is less than the shank diameter

6-5. What type of rivet is used for fastening thick-gauge sheets of metal together?

A. Solid B. Blind C. Shear D. Structural

6-6. When space on one side is too restricted to properly use a bucking bar, what type of rivet should you use?

A. Flat B. Solid C. Blind D. Hi-Shear®

6-7. What type of fastener is used in an application for which a high strength, interference-free fastener is required?

A. Jo-Bolt® B. Lock-bolt C. Hi-Lok® D. Rivnut

6-8. What type of fastener has high strength and is used in applications for which access to only one side of the material is available?

A. Jo-Bolt® B. Lock-bolt C. Hi-Lok® D. Rivnut

6-9. Which of the following characteristics describes a rivnut?

A. Solid B. Square C. Oblong D. Hollow

6-10. What type of rivnut must be used on sealed floatation or pressurized compartments?

A. Open-end B. Closed-end C. Groove shanked D. Externally threaded

6-11. Which of the following fasteners has a shear and tensile strength equal to or greater than the requirements of AN or NAS bolts?

A. Lock-bolt B. Turnlock C. Rivnut D. Airloc

6-12. What metal is used in the construction of the threaded pins of Hi-Lok® fasteners?

A. Titanium B. Stainless C. Anodized 2024-T6 aluminum D. Cadmium-plated alloy steel

6-13. Which of the following is NEVER a head style of a Jo-Bolt®?

A. 100-degree flush B. Diamond recessed C. Hexagon protruding D. 100-degree flush millable

6-14. What type of fastener is used on panels that are removed and reinstalled frequently for maintenance repairs?

A. Hi-Lok® B. Jo-Bolt® C. Turnlock D. Structural

6-15. What distance must the stud of a Camloc fastener be turned to release it without permitting re- engagement?

A. One-half turn clockwise B. One-fourth turn clockwise C. One-half turn counterclockwise D. One-fourth turn counterclockwise

6-16. Which of the following parts is used only on heavy-duty Dzus fasteners?

A. Pin B. Stud C. Spring D. Grommet

6-17. When you install a hose between two duct sections, what is the maximum allowable gap, in inches, between the duct ends?

A. 1/4 B. 3/8 C. 3/4 D. 7/8

6-18. A V-band coupling requires what minimum number of turns of safety wire?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

6-19. A flat-head pin used in a tie-rod terminal should be secured with what device?

A. Cotter pin B. Sheet spring nut C. Self-locking nut D. Safety wire

6-20. Aircraft nuts are divided into what two general groups?

A. Self-locking and nonself-locking B. Metal insert and fiber insert C. High temperature and common D. Ferrous and nonferrous

6-21. Which of the following nuts is an example of an all-metal self-locking nut?

A. Wing B. Flexloc C. Elastic stop D. Internal wrenching

6-22. Which of the following types of nuts is designed to be used with cotter pins or safety wire?

A. Check B. Plate C. Castle D. Barrel

6-23. When an assembly is frequently removed, which of the following types of nuts should be used?

A. Wing B. Shear C. Klincher D. Sheet spring

6-24. What three types of screws are most commonly used in aircraft construction?

A. Machine, structural, and self-tapping B. Brazier-head, round-head, and common C. Self-tapping, Phillips, and common D. Structural, machine, and pan-head

6-25. Which of the following types of screws are as strong as bolts of the same size?

A. Setscrews B. Machine screws C. Structural screws D. Self-tapping screws

6-26. Flush-head screws are available in what degree(s) of head angles?

A. 82° only B. 82° and 100° only C. 82°, 100°, and 125° only D. 82°, 100°, 125°, and 145°

6-27. When replacing an original screw in a structure, you should never use which of the following screws?

A. Setscrew B. Machine screw C. Structural screw D. Self-tapping screw

6-28. Aircraft cables have the center core twisted in one direction and the outer core in the opposite direction for what reason?

A. To make the cable rigid B. To make the cable stiffer C. To minimize the stretch or set D. To allow the strands to expand when cut

6-29. A piece of 7 x 19 cable has what total number of wires?

A. 133 B. 26 C. 19 D. 7

6-30. Terminal fittings are generally attached to the ends of cables by what method?

A. Swaging B. Welding C. Splicing D. Soldering

6-31. The size of a cable is determined by which of the following factors?

A. Lay B. Tension C. Diameter D. Strength

6-32. The turnbuckle is used to make what type of cable adjustments?

A. Minor adjustments to cable length only B. Minor adjustments to cable tension only C. Minor adjustments to cable length and tension D. Adjustments to cable threads

6-33. Adjustable connector links are used in what type of cable assemblies?

A. Very long B. Very short C. Thin D. Stretch

6-34. How many different types of cable guides are used throughout an aircraft?

A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

6-35. A fairlead may be used to minimize cable whipping and what other action?

A. Sticking B. Binding C. Slacking D. Vibration in long cable runs

6-36. A grommet is manufactured from what material?

A. Rubber B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Felt

6-37. What device is used on cables or rods that must move through a pressurized bulkhead?

A. O-ring B. Grommet C. Pressure seal D. Back-up ring

6-38. What device changes cable direction and allows a cable to move with minimum friction?

A. Pulley B. Sector C. Quadrant D. Bell crank

6-39. A connector assembly consists of how many different parts?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

6-40. What device provides a means of fastening a wire to a terminal stud?

A. Connector B. Bonding wire C. Terminal D. Static discharger

6-41. What type of terminal is generally recommended for use on naval aircraft?

A. Crimped B. Soldered C. Twist-on D. Fused

6-42. What type of terminal is usually used in emergencies only?

A. Crimped B. Soldered C. Twist on D. Fused

6-43. What type of connection is used to connect all metal parts of an aircraft to complete an electrical unit?

A. Terminal B. Static C. Bonding D. Fused

6-44. What component allows for the continuous satisfactory operation of onboard navigation and radio communication systems?

A. Bonding wires B. Connectors C. Terminals D. Static dischargers

6-45. What factor accounts for the majority of all fastener problems?

A. Fatigue failure B. Improper material C. Cross-threading D. Corrosive breakdown

6-46. Cotter pins are used to secure which of the following devices?

A. Bolts only B. Nuts only C. Screws only D. Bolts, nuts, and screws

6-47. What type of safety wire is used in high-temperature areas?

A. Bailing B. Brass C. Annealed copper D. Annealed, corrosion-resistant

6-48. What type of safety wire is used on valves and levers used for emergency operation of aircraft equipment?

A. Copper B. Brass C. Bailing D. Corrosion-resistant

6-49. How many different methods are used for safetying a turnbuckle?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

6-50. How many times, if any, can a turnbarrel lock clip be reused?

A. One time B. Two times C. Three times D. It cannot be reused

6-51. How many pieces of safety wire are used when securing a turnbuckle using the wire-wrapped method?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

6-52. When you use the wire-wrapped method on a turnbuckle, each wire is wrapped how many times around the shank?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

End of Book Questions Chapter 7 Aircraft Power Plants

7-1. What engine does NOT draw air from the outside to fuel the combustion process?

A. Gas turbine B. Rocket C. Turboprop D. Turboshaft

7-2. How many types of jet propulsion engines are there?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

7-3. How many major components make up a turbojet engine?

A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7

7-4. How many types of gas turbine engine are there?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

7-5. Which of Newton’s laws of motion explains the operation of jet propulsion?

A. First B. Third C. Fifth D. Seventh

7-6. What component is an opening in the front of the aircraft that allows outside air to enter the engine?

A. Inlet duct B. Compressor C. Combustion chamber D. Turbine

7-7. Which of the following types of aircraft uses a turbojet engine?

A. H-57 B. F/A-18 C. T-6 D. C-130

7-8. What component is attached to the rear of the turbine assembly and is a tapered, cylinder- shaped outlet for the gases?

A. Inlet duct B. Compressor C. Combustion chamber D. Exhaust cone

7-9. What component is made up of a series of rotating blades and a row of stationary stator vanes?

A. Inlet duct B. Compressor C. Combustion chamber D. Exhaust cone

7-10. How many igniter plugs are usually on an engine?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

7-11. What section of a turbojet engine drives the compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion gases?

A. Inlet duct B. Compressor C. Combustion chamber D. Turbine

7-12. What engine was developed to provide the power requirements for aircraft of greater size, carrying capacity, range, and speed?

A. Rocket B. Turboprop C. Turborotor D. Turboshaft

7-13. How many major sections make up a turboprop engine?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

7-14. What section of a turboprop engine consists of an axial-flow compressor, a combustion chamber, a multi-stage turbine, and an exhaust?

A. Power B. Reduction C. Torquemeter D. Tail

7-15. What assembly on a turboprop engine lowers the engine rpm within the range of efficient propeller rpm?

A. Power B. Reduction C. Torquemeter D. Tail

7-16. What type of engine has a high power-to-weight ratio and is widely used in helicopters?

A. Rocket B. Turbojet C. Turboprop D. Turboshaft

7-17. What control system on a gas turbine engine assists in cooling the engine?

A. Accessory B. Ignition C. Fuel control D. Lubrication

7-18. What component on an engine is the heart of the gas fuel system?

A. Accessory section B. Ignition system C. Fuel control D. Exhaust cone

7-19. For what do gas turbine engines use high voltage and a spark of high heat intensity?

A. Cooling B. Ignition C. Thrust D. Shutdown

7-20. How many different types of ignition systems are used on gas turbine engines?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

7-21. What type of lubricant is used in all gas turbine engine lubrication systems?

A. AMS oil B. Synthetic oil C. Hydraulic fluid D. Synthetic hydraulic fluid

7-22. What section on a gas turbine engine is usually mounted beneath the compressor?

A. Fuel control B. Accessory C. Ignition D. Lubrication

7-23. What cycle is used to describe the gas turbine engine’s cycle?

A. Amber B. Braxton C. Brayton D. Camber

7-24. In the ANA Bulletin No. 306m Designation System, the number 30 is used for what branch of service?

A. Army B. Coast guard C. Air Force D. Navy

7-25. What symbol is used for a turbojet engine?

A. A B. J C. K D. T

7-26. What symbol is used for a turboprop engine?

A. A B. J C. K D. T

7-27. How many designation systems are used to identify aircraft power plants?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

7-28. What letter preceding the basic designation signifies a special designation?

A. A B. B C. X D. Z

7-29. What is the engine manufacturer symbol for United Aircraft of Canada Ltd.?

A. AD B. BA C. CA D. CP

7-30. What is the engine manufacturer symbol for AiResearch Division, Garrett Corp.?

A. BA B. GA C. LD D. MD

7-31. Without ear protection, persons exposed to sound intensities above what dB may suffer hearing damage?

A. 110 B. 120 C. 130 D. 140

7-32. What area on an aircraft produces the two most serious hazards, the high temperature and the high velocity of the tailpipe?

A. Exhaust B. Intake C. Landing gear D. Main rotor

7-33. What area on an aircraft develops enough suction to pull in an individual?

A. Exhaust B. Intake C. Landing gear D. Main rotor

7-34. Keeping aircraft and power plants in top operating condition is the principal function of what type of personnel?

A. Admin B. Maintenance C. Medical D. Security

7-35. In the MIL-STD-1812 engine designation system, what number is used by the Navy?

A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400

End of Book Questions Chapter 8 Aircraft Avionics

8-1. What maintains the battery in a charged state?

A. APU B. Alternator C. Electrolyte D. Generator

8-2. What provides a reserve source of electrical power for selected electrical systems?

A. APU B. Alternator C. Battery D. Generator

8-3. What are batteries usually enclosed in?

A. Grounded metal housing B. Ungrounded metal housing C. Grounded plastic housing D. Ungrounded plastic housing

8-4. What hazard is caused by spraying CO2 into a battery compartment?

A. The static electricity generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could explode the gases trapped in the battery compartment. B. The temperature generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could freeze the gases trapped in the battery compartment. C. The heat generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could burn the gases trapped in the battery compartment. D. The water generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could liquefy the gases trapped in the battery compartment.

8-5. What is the principal hazard in working with lead-acid batteries?

A. Burns B. Explosion C. Heat D. inhalation

8-6. What converts ac power to dc power?

A. Alternator B. APU C. Rectifier D. Generator

8-7. What rating maintains the pitot-static system and most aircraft instruments?

A. AB B. AD C. AE D. AT

8-8. What amount of power is provided by the aircraft carrier electrical servicing system?

A. 200 Hz B. 400 Hz C. 600 Hz D. 800 Hz

8-9. What system is based on a radar wave transmission beamed toward the earth behind the aircraft?

A. Doppler B. INS C. TACAN D. UPS

8-10. What provides ground service and emergency power?

A. APU B. Carrier servicing system C. Generator D. Rectifier

8-11. What converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?

A. Battery B. Carrier servicing system C. Generator D. Rectifier

8-12. The pitot-static system consists of a pitot-static tube and how many indicators?

A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7

8-13. What indicator shows the height of the aircraft above sea level?

A. Airspeed B. Altimeter C. Rate-of-climb D. Tachometer

8-14. What instrument shows the speed of the power section of a gas turbine engine?

A. Airspeed B. Altimeter C. Rate-of-climb D. Tachometer

8-15. What indicator shows the pilot the relative position of the aircraft compared to the earth's horizon?

A. Altimeter B. Angle of attack C. Attitude D. Airspeed

8-16. What range of frequencies are airborne long-range communications sets normally operated in?

A. 3 MHz to 30 MHz B. 30 MHz to 3 GHz C. 6 MHz to 40 MHz D. 40 MHz to 6 GHz

8-17. What new and complex group of electronic navigational equipment is now in use in naval aviation?

A. Doppler B. Navigation computers C. GPS D. TACAN

8-18. What radio navigational set provides slant range and relative bearing to a transmitting ground (surface) station?

A. Doppler B. GPS C. TACAN D. UPS

8-19. What is an automatic aid to navigation that is independent of outside references?

A. Doppler B. INS C. TACAN D. UPS

8-20. What system works on the echo principle?

A. RADAR B. Sonobuoys C. TACAN D. WC

8-21. A surfaced or snorkeling submarine is not likely to be detected by an aircraft's radar. The reason is the submarine's ECM detects the aircraft's radar at a greater distance than the aircraft can detect the submarine. What helps solve the submarine detection problem?

A. RADAR B. Sonobuoys C. TACAN D. WC

8-22. The highly directional characteristics of what system make it suited for directing fire control?

A. ECHO B. IFF C. RADAR D. TACAN

8-23. What method other than visual recognition must be used for early identification of the target?

A. ECHO B. IFF C. RADAR D. TACAN

8-24. What is an expendable electronic listening device dropped into water from carrier-based and land-based patrol aircraft?

A. Gyroscopes B. IFF C. MAD D. Sonobuoys

8-25. What equipment uses the principle that a metallic submarine disturbs the magnetic lines of force of the earth?

A. Gyroscopes B. IFF C. MAD D. Sonobuoys

End of Book Questions Chapter 9 Aircraft Ordnance

9-1. What is military material (such as combat weapons of all kinds) and the ammunition and equipment required for its use called?

A. Ammunition B. Ordnance C. Propellant D. Pyrotechnics

9-2. What ammunition contains compositions that produce illumination?

A. Cartridge activated device (CAD) B. Propellant C. Pyrotechnics D. Warhead

9-3. What is the term for actual size ammunition items with working mechanisms used for training exercises but having no explosive materials?

A. CAD B. Chemical ammunition C. Guided missile D. Inert ordnance

9-4. What is the part of ammunition containing the materials intended to inflict damage?

A. Cartridge activated device (CAD) B. Propellant C. Pyrotechnics D. Warhead

9-5. Which of the following is an unmanned vehicle designed as a weapon that travels above the surface of the earth?

A. Airborne stores B. Guided missile C. Incendiary D. Warhead

9-6. What type of ammunition is intended for operational use?

A. Inert B. Practice C. Non-service D. Service

9-7. What type of ammunition is specifically designed or modified for use in exercises?

A. Inert B. Practice C. Non-service D. Service

9-8. What type of ammunition and components contain no explosive material?

A. Inert B. Practice C. Non-service D. Service

9-9. What type of ammunition is used for training personnel in all aspects of a familiarization program?

A. Inert B. Practice C. Non-service D. Service

9-10. What type of ordnance is painted yellow?

A. Armor-defeating B. Marking C. High explosive D. Toxic

9-11. What type of ordnance is painted grey with a dark green band?

A. Armor-defeating B. Marking C. High explosive D. Toxic

9-12. What type of ordnance is painted light blue?

A. Illuminating B. Irritant C. Low explosive D. Practice

9-13. What is the average reaction time of a MK 82 unprotected?

A. 3 + 30 B. 10 + 00 C. 12 + 18 D. 14 + 15

9-14. What type of bombs have two suspension lugs threaded into lug inserts on the bomb body, contain high-explosive filler, and is identified by yellow-stenciled nomenclature on the bomb?

A. MK 80/BLU 100 B. MK 100/BLU 80 C. MK 176/BLU 82 D. MK191/BLU 88

9-15. What is the shortest reaction time of a BLU-117 thermally protected?

A. 3 + 30 B. 8 + 45 C. 12 + 18 D. 14 + 15

9-16. Which of the following types of bomb is used in most bombing operations?

A. General-purpose (GP) bombs B. Special purpose bombs C. Cluster bombs (CBU) D. Low-collateral damage bomb (LOCO)

9-17. A bomb body is shipped with a plastic plug installed in the nose and tail fuze wells to prevent what occurrence?

A. The explosive filler from spilling out B. Static charge build-up C. Accidental arming D. Damage to the internal threads from moisture entering the fuze wells

9-18. When shipping bombs, what type of pallet is used?

A. Metal B. Nylon C. Plastic D. Wood

9-19. How do laser-guided bombs detect a target?

A. Laser beam illumination B. Remote guidance C. Laser-guided bombs do not detect targets D. Programmed target data

9-20. Long-range missiles are usually capable of traveling what minimum number of miles?

A. 100 miles B. 200 miles C. 300 miles D. 400 miles

9-21. Speeds from Mach 0.8 to Mach 1.2 are referred to by what term?

A. Subsonic B. Transonic C. Supersonic D. Hypersonic

9-22. Speeds above Mach 5.0 are referred to by what term?

A. Subsonic B. Transonic C. Supersonic D. Hypersonic

9-23. A service missile is usually referred to as which of the following types of missile?

A. A practice missile B. A tactical missile C. A dummy missile D. A training missile

9-24. What is the communications link between the pilot and the weapon?

A. AAA-9 B. AN/AE-12 C. AN/AWW-13 D. AR/AWW-13

9-25. Which of the following guided missile launchers is a complete launching system used with AIM-9M (series) missiles?

A. LAU-7 B. LAU-115 C. LAU-116 D. LAU-118

9-26. What launchers are capable of launching the AIM-9X?

A. LAU-7 and LAU-118 B. LAU-7 and LAU-127 C. LAU-115 and LAU-117 D. LAU-117 and LAU-118

9-27. All versions of Hellfire missiles in the Navy and Marine Corps inventory are carried on what type of guided missile launcher?

A. LAU-117 and LAU-118 B. LAU-118 and LAU-127 C. M-272/M-299 D. All the answers are correct

9-28. How is an M61A1/A2 automatic gun (1) driven and (2) controlled?

A. (1) Electrically (2) pneumatically B. (1) Hydraulically (2) electrically C. (1) Electrically (2) electrically D. (1) Hydraulically (2) pneumatically

9-29. At what prescribed rate can an M61A1/A2 gun fire M50 series ammunition?

A. 2,000 to 6,000 rpm B. 2,000 to 4,000 rpm C. 4,000 to 6,000 rpm D. 4,000 to 7,200 rpm

9-30. What components are the primary parts of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun?

A. Barrels, housing assembly, and muzzle clamp assembly B. Housing assembly, muzzle clamp assembly, and clearing sector assembly C. Barrels, rotor assembly, and housing assembly D. Muzzle clamp assembly, rotor assembly, and barrels

9-31. A hand-manipulated signaling device is used for all EXCEPT which of the following signaling purposes?

A. Identification B. Countermeasure C. Warning D. Distress

9-32. When fired, the star ejected from an Mk 80 Mod 0 signal burns for what minimum amount of time?

A. 4.5 seconds B. 10.5 seconds C. 4.5 minutes D. 10.5 minutes

9-33. Before loading a signal into an Mk 31 Mod 0 signal projector, you should first take what action?

A. Inspect the signal for damage B. Make sure the signal projector is cocked C. Clear all personnel from the immediate area D. Make sure the signal projector is not cocked

9-34. When a Mk 25 Mod 2 marker is in the water, what liquid serves as an electrolyte to produce a current in the battery?

A. Fresh water B. Oil C. Seawater D. Acid

9-35. What type of CAD is used primarily for release and ejection of stores from an aircraft?

A. CCU-44/C B. CCU-45/B C. Mk 19 Mod 0 D. Mk 97 Mod 0

9-36. What type of CAD is used as a power source to actuate a helicopter cable cutter?

A. CCU-44/C B. CCU-45/B C. Mk 19 Mod 0 D. Mk 97 Mod 0

9-37. What type of bomb rack is installed on the wing stations of the P-3 aircraft and is used with the aircraft wing store launcher assembly, which is modified to launch a Harpoon missile?

A. BRU-14/A B. BRU-12/A C. BRU-15/A D. BRU-32/A

9-38. What type of bomb rack is designed for fixed mounting in a bomb bay of a P-3 aircraft and can be used to carry, arm, and release a weapon?

A. BRU-11 B. BRU-12 C. BRU-14 D. BRU-32

9-39. What type of bomb rack can carry weapons/stores of between 10 and 28 inches in diameter weighing up to 2,600 pounds?

A. BRU-11 B. BRU-12 C. BRU-24 D. BRU-32

9-40. What type of bomb rack allows carriage of two smart weapons (up to 1,000-pound class) on a single aircraft station?

A. BRU-12 B. BRU-14 C. BRU-55 D. BRU-65

End of Book Questions Chapter 10 Support Equipment

10-1. What are the two types of SE?

A. Aircraft handling equipment and preoperational equipment B. Aircraft handling equipment and aircraft servicing equipment C. Aircraft servicing equipment and aircraft preoperational equipment D. Aircraft servicing equipment and aircraft stationing equipment

10-2. What SE is a highly maneuverable, low-profile, towbarless helicopter handling vehicle that replaces the current hangar bay spotting dolly and attaches to and lifts a helicopter's single-tail landing gear?

A. A/S32A-31A B. A/S32A-32 C. SHH D. HSS

10-3. What SE is a shipboard firefighting vehicle, 4-wheel (2-wheel drive), 6-cylinder, turbocharged, liquid-cooled, 24-volt, diesel-powered vehicle with a hydrostatic drive system that transmits power to the rear wheels?

A. A/S32A-31A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S32P-25 D. A/S32P-48

10-4. What SE is an aircraft towing tractor, also called "The Spotting Dolly," and is designed to tow, turn, and position aircraft within the confines of an aircraft carrier hangar deck?

A. A/S32A-31A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S32A-45 D. A/S32A-48

10-5. What SE is a mid-range tow tractor with a 4-cylinder, diesel-powered, 3-speed automatic transmission, liquid cooled, rear-wheel-drive tractor designed for towing aircraft weighing up to 80,000 pounds?

A. A/S32A-31A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S32A-45 D. A/S32A-48

10-6. What SE is an aircraft crash handling and salvage, self-propelled, 4-wheel drive, 6-cylinder, liquid-cooled, turbocharged, diesel electric-powered vehicle mounted on 6 pneumatic rubber tires?

A. A/S32A-35A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S32A-45 D. A/S32A-48

10-7. What SE is used to replenish oxygen storage cylinders and emergency bailout oxygen systems, which are installed in aircraft?

A. A/M26U-4B B. A/M32C-23 C. A/U26U-1 D. TMU-70

10-8. What SE is a shipboard mobile electric power plant (MEPP) designed to provide 115-VAC, 3- phase, 400-Hz or 28-VDC electrical power for aircraft aboard ship?

A. A/S32A-35A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S37A-3 D. A/S32A-48

10-9. All support equipment you operate will have what type of card specific to the SE?

A. Non-operational B. Operational C. Post-operational D. Pre-operational

10-10. What phase of the SE training program do you receive training from AS ratings at the support equipment school sponsored by FRC/AIMD?

A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

10-11. What phase of the SE training program covers the operation or use of the support equipment on a specific type of aircraft?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

10-12. Who can submit a misuse or abuse form regardless of the command to which the person is attached?

A. Anyone in the AS rating B. Anyone witnessing the misuse or abuse C. Only a supervisor D. Only the safety officer

10-13. Who has the responsibility to revoke your yellow license under the condition that you intentionally misuse or abuse support equipment?

A. AMO B. CO C. DO D. XO

10-14. How long is your "yellow license" good for from the date issued for each specific type of support equipment and aircraft?

A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 4 years D. 5 years

10-15. If you transfer to a new outfit with different types of aircraft, your license is not valid. You must requalify under what phase of training for the new types of aircraft and be issued a new license?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

10-16. Who performs preoperational maintenance?

A. Organizational and intermediate administrative personnel B. Organizational and intermediate maintenance personnel C. Intermediate and civilian administrative personnel D. Intermediate and civilian maintenance personnel

End of Book Chapter 11 Line Operations and Safety

11-1. What is the speed limit on runways, taxiways, parking areas, ramps, and work areas?

A. 2 mph B. 5 mph C. 7 mph D. 10 mph

11-2. When aircraft are towed, the towing speed should never be faster than the slowest person can walk or exceed ……. mph.

A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10

11-3. What color are most support equipment painted?

A. Blue and/or white with reflective tape strips on the side. B. Yellow and/or red with reflective tape strips on the corners. C. Yellow and/or white with reflective tape strips on the corners. D. White and/or blue with reflective tape strips on the side.

11-4. What type of life preserver is worn on the flight deck?

A. MJ-1 B. MJ-2 C. MK-1 D. MK-2

11-5. What color are danger areas, including intakes/exhaust and front/rear pintels for attaching tow bars, painted?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. Yellow

11-6. What color flight deck jersey does the arresting gear crew wear?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. Yellow

11-7. What color flight deck jersey does the aviation fuel crew wear?

A. Blue B. Purple C. Red D. White

11-8. What color flight deck jersey does the Liquid Oxygen (LOX) crew wear?

A. Blue B. Purple C. Red D. White

11-9. What color flight deck jersey does the aircraft handling crew and chock men wear?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White

11-10. What color flight deck jersey do ordnance personnel wear?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White

11-11. How many hours before the launch is flight quarters usually sounded?

A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 3 C. 4 to 5 D. 5 to 6

11-12. How many minutes before launch time do flight crews perform their final checks to start the engines upon the signal from primary fly control (PRI-FLY)?

A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30

11-13. Who has control for all flight deck lighting, landing spot lighting, flight deck floodlights, the stabilized glide slope indicator (SGSI), and the flight deck rotary beacon/

A. Flight deck control B. Hangar deck control C. Maintenance control D. Primary fly control (PRI-FLY)

11-14. Who is involved in FOD walkdown?

A. All air department personnel B. Flight deck personnel C. Maintenance personnel D. Support equipment personnel

11-15. Which of the following is part of the emergency recovery equipment used for the emergency arrestment (stopping) of an aircraft that cannot make a normal (pendant) arrested landing?

A. Arresting hook B. Barricade C. Catwalks D. Number 3 wire

11-16. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: arms above head in vertical position with palms facing inward?

A. Affirmative (all clear) B. Negative (not clear) C. Proceed to next marshaler D. This way

11-17. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: arms down, fists closed, thumbs extended inwards, swing arms from extended position inwards?

A. Affirmative (all clear) B. Insert chocks C. Install down locks D. Remove chocks

11-18. What director hand signal is mandatory when directing aircraft?

A. Cut engine B. Disconnect ground electric power C. Emergency stop D. Hot brakes

11-19. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand moving across the throat, palm down; hand is moved sideways, arm remaining bent, other arm pointing to engine?

A. Cut engine B. Disconnect ground electric power C. Slow down engine D. Start ground electric power

11-20. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: describe large figure eight with one hand and point to the area with the other hand?

A. Cut engine B. Disconnect ground electric power C. Fire D. Engage nosegear steering

11-21. The aft flight deck is checked by who before aircraft can land?

A. Aircraft handling officer B. Arresting gear officer C. Catapult officer D. Flight deck control officer

11-22. What color wand is used by an aviation fuels checker?

A. Amber B. Green C. Red D. White

11-23. What color wand is used by a hook runner?

A. Amber B. Green C. Red D. White

11-24. What color wand is used by a plane captain?

A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White

11-25. What is the meaning of the following day time helicopter hand signal: arms extended horizontally sideways, palms downward?

A. Hover B. Move downward C. Move upward D. Move to left

11-26. What is the meaning of the following day time helicopter hand signal: waving of arms over the head?

A. Land B. Lower wheels C. Remove blade tiedowns D. Wave off

11-27. During cold weather procedures jury struts and crew station covers are …….

A. Mandatory. B. Optional. C. Necessary. D. Recommended.

11-28. During cold weather procedures what type of support equipment may be fitted with snowplow blades?

A. Forklift B. NC-10 C. Spotting dolly D. Tow tractor

11-29. What is designed for towing aircraft that have nose or tailwheel axle holes?

A. ALBAR B. TD-1A C. TD-1B D. Wheel chock

11-30. What is used to tie down aircraft aboard ship?

A. ALBAR B. TD-1A/B C. TD-22C D. Wheel chock

End of Book Questions Chapter 12 Aircrew Survival Equipment

12-1. What is the first priority of flight clothing?

A. Camouflage B. Comfort C. Evasion D. Protection

12-2. At what temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit, does the summer flyer’s coverall begin to char?

A. 300 to 600 B. 400 to 700 C. 700 to 800 D. 900 to 1,000

12-3. Flyer’s boots come in which of the following size ranges?

A. 4 narrow through 14½ extra wide B. 5½ wide through 13 regular C. 5½ narrow through 15½ narrow D. 6 regular through 16 wide

12-4. The CWU-62/P anti-exposure coverall is supplied in how many sizes?

A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12

12-5. At what water temperature is the anti-exposure suit required to be worn?

A. 32 °C or below B. 40 °C or below C. 50 °F or below D. 60 °F or below

12-6. The multi-climate protection system is made up of how many pieces?

A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

12-7. What is the limit of speed a human can endure in a straight and level flight in an aircraft?

A. No limit B. 5 g’s C. 7 g’s D. 12 g’s

12-8. What type of garment provides protection from the effects of high g-forces experienced by aircrew assigned to high-performance aircraft?

A. Anti-exposure B. Anti-g C. Survival vest D. Torso harness

12-9. Who was the first person credited for successfully jumping from an aircraft using a parachute?

A. Jodaki Kuparento B. Albert Berry C. Arnold Appleby D. Andre-Jacques Garnerin

12-10. When did it become mandatory for all Army and Navy aircrew to wear the standard back-type parachute while in flight?

A. 1919 B. 1924 C. 1922 D. 1918

12-11. What is the second step of the five-step ejection sequence of the MK GRU-7?

A. Controller drogue deploys. B. Drogue gun fires. C. Initial ejection. D. Stabilizer drogue deploys.

12-12. By how many methods can the reserve parachute assembly be actuated?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

12-13. How much does the LPU-34/P series life preserver weigh, in pounds?

A. 3 B. 3¼ C. 4 D. 4½

12-14. The LPU-34/P series life preserver has how many inflatable bladders?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

12-15. What is the buoyancy rating, in pounds, of a properly inflated LPU-32/P life preserver?

A. 32 B. 40 C. 50 D. 65

12-16. What is the maximum number of personnel the LRU-16/P life raft can hold?

A. One B. Two C. Four D. Six

12-17. After how long does a dye marker cease to be a good target?

A. 1 hour B. 10 to 15 minutes C. 20 to 30 minutes D. 30 to 50 minutes

12-18. How far, in miles, can the dye marker be seen from an altitude of 3,000 feet?

A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10

12-19. What amount of candlepower is equivalent to the light a signaling mirror can produce?

A. 6 million B. 8 million C. 10 million D. 11 million

12-20. How many Mk 80 cartridges are in an Mk 79, Mod 0 signal kit?

A. 7 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

12-21. How many feet can the Mk 80 signal flare travel when propelled upward?

A. 100 to 350 B. 150 to 400 C. 250 to 650 D. 350 to 750

12-22. What is the maximum number of personnel the LRU-12A life raft assembly can hold?

A. One B. Three C. Four D. Six

12-23. What type of casing is the rescue strop constructed of?

A. International orange nylon B. International red nylon C. International red canvas D. International orange canvas

12-24. What material is inserted in the base of rescue seat?

A. Aluminum B. Foam C. Lead D. Nitrogen

12-25. How many pounds does the rescue net weigh?

A. 10 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30

12-26. How many times per minute for each 2-minute duration is the SDU-39/N required to flash?

A. 20 ±5 B. 30 ±10 C. 40 ±5 D. 50 ±10

End of Book Questions Chapter 13 Crash Rescue and Firefighting

13-1. The process of fire is regarded as what type of triangle?

A. Chemical B. Combustion C. Fuel D. Oxygen

13-2. What is considered the fourth element necessary to sustain a fire?

A. Chemical chain reaction B. Fuel C. Heat D. Oxygen

13-3. What word is defined as the lowest temperature at which its vapors can be ignited and will continue to burn?

A. Exhaust point B. Fire point C. Flash point D. Vapor point

13-4. What term is defined as the temperature at which the substance gives off enough vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the substance's surface?

A. Exhaust point B. Fire point C. Flash point D. Vapor point

13-5. At what temperature will fuel spontaneously ignite?

A. 300 °F B. 500 °F C. 700 °F D. 900 °F

13-6. Removing the fuel or combustible matter is doing what to a fire?

A. Cooling B. Feeding C. Smothering D. Starving

13-7. What class of fire occurs in combustible materials, such as bedding, mattresses, books, cloth, and any matter that produces an ash?

A. A B. B C. C D. D

13-8. What class of fire is an energized electrical fire?

A. A B. B C. C D. D

13-9. Water in what form is very effective for fire-fighting purposes?

A. Foam B. Fog C. Solid stream D. Straight stream

13-10. What fire-extinguishing agent is an inert gas and extinguishes fires by smothering them?

A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP

13-11. What class of fire occurs with flammable liquid substances?

A. A B. B C. C D. D

13-12. What class of fire occurs with combustible metals?

A. A B. B C. C D. D

13-13. What fire-extinguishing agent is a dry chemical principally used as a firefighting agent for flammable liquid fires?

A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP

13-14. What fire-extinguishing agent is known chemically as bromochlorodifluoromethane, is colorless, and has a sweet smell?

A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP

13-15. What size, in inches, are fireplug outlets?

A. 1¼ or 2¼ B. 1½ or 2½ C. 2¼ or 3¼ D. 2½ or 3½

13-16. How many gallons does a high-capacity AFFF system tank hold?

A. 200 B. 400 C. 600 D. 800

13-17. How many gallons per minute (gpm) flow from a 2 ½ inch vari-nozzle?

A. 150 B. 200 C. 250 D. 300

13-18. What firefighting vehicle is a diesel-powered, six-wheel-drive truck with an automatic transmission?

A. A/S32P-25 B. A/S33P-26 C. T-1000 D. T-3000

13-19. What firefighting vehicle is a 4-wheel (2-wheel drive), 6-cylinder, turbocharged, liquid-cooled, 24-volt, diesel-powered vehicle, with a hydrostatic drive system that transmits power to the rear wheels?

A. A/S32P-25 B. A/S33P-26 C. T-1000 D. T-3000

13-20. How many feet per minute (fpm) is the rate of flame spread of aviation gasoline (AVGAS)?

A. 700 to 800 B. 800 to 900 C. 900 to 1000 D. 1,000 to 1,100

13-21. What is the flash point of JP-4?

A. − °F B. −5 °C C. −10 °F D. −10 °C

13-22. The time to fuel tank failure (release of fuel) is dependent on the percent of fuel in the tank and ranges from what amount of time?

A. 28 seconds for a 10-percent load to 3 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load B. 38 seconds for a 10-percent load to 4 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load C. 1 minute for a 10-percent load to 6 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load D. 3 minutes for a 10-percent load to 8 minutes for a 100-percent load

13-23. At what temperature does liquid oxygen boil into gaseous oxygen?

A. −55 °F B. −155 °C C. −200 °F D. −147 °C

13-24. What are the primary agents used to extinguish internal engine fires?

A. AFFF or water B. Halon 1211 or CO2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. PKP or CO2

13-25. What are the primary agents used to extinguish electrical and electronic equipment fires?

A. PKP or water B. Halon 1211 or CO2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. PKP or CO2

13-26. What are the primary agents used to extinguish rubber tire fires?

A. PKP or water B. Halon 1211 or CO2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. Halon 1211 or water fog