FIRE CONTROLMAN VOLUME 2--FIRE-CONTROL SYSTEMS AND RADAR FUNDAMENTALS

in various activities within the electromagnetic environment. A discussion of the various methods used to detect electromagnetic energy is beyond the scope of this NRTC. However, we must emphasize the importance of remaining alert to the danger of overexposure to EMR. Radiation hazards can be broken down into three categories: • Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) • Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuel (HERF) • Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Personnel (HERP) We will discuss each of these categories in more detail in the following paragraphs. Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) The high intensity radio frequency (RFR) fields produced by modern radio and radar transmitting equipment can cause sensitive electroexplosive devices (EEDs) contained in ordnance systems to actuate prematurely. The Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) problem was first recognized in 1958. The prime factors causing the problem have been increasing ever since. The use of EEDs in ordnance systems has become essential. At the same time, the power output and frequency ranges of radio and radar transmitting equipment have also increased. RFR energy may enter an ordnance item through a hole or crack in its skin or through firing leads, wires, and so on. In general, ordnance systems that are susceptible to RFR energy are most susceptible during assembly, disassembly, loading, unloading, and handling in RFR electromagnetic fields. The most likely results of premature actuation are propellant ignition or reduction of reliability by dudding. Where out-of-line Safety and Arming (S+ A) devices are used; the actuation of EEDs may be undetectable unless the item is disassembled. If the item does not contain an S+ A device, or if RFR energy bypasses the S+ A device, the warhead may detonate. Ordnance items susceptible to RFR can be assigned one of three HERO classifications, based upon the probability that they will be adversely affected by the RFR environment. Those classifications are: 1. HERO Safe. An ordnance item sufficiently shielded or protected to make it immune to adverse effects from RFR when used in its expected shipboard RFR environments. 2. HERO susceptible. Ordnance containing EEDs proven by tests to be adversely affected by RFR energy to the point that safety or reliability may be in jeopardy when the ordnance is used in RFR environments. 3. HERO unsafe. Any electrically initiated ordnance item that becomes unsafe when: a. Its internal wiring is physically exposed. b. Tests being conducted on the item require additional electrical connections to be made. c. Electroexplosive devices (EEDs) having exposed wire leads are present, handled, or loaded. d. The item is being assembled or disassembled. e. The item is in a disassembled condition. f. The item contains one or more EEDs and has not been classified as HERO safe or susceptible by either a test or design analysis. To ensure the HERO safety and HERO reliability of ordnance systems, the Naval Sea Systems Command sponsors an extensive testing program to determine their susceptibility to RFR energy. HERO requirements and precautions are provided in NA VSEA OP 3565/NA V AIR 16-1-529/NA VELEX 0967-LP-624-6010/V olume II, Electromagnetic Radiation Hazards (U) (Hazards to Ordnance) (U) . You will find your ship’s specific requirements in its HERO Emission Control (EMCON) bill. The commanding officer of each ship or shore station is responsible for implementing HERO requirements. He or she must also establish a procedure to control radiation from radio and radar antennas among personnel handling ordnance and personnel controlling radio and radar transmitters. The commanding officer does this through a command instruction based on the ship’s mission and special features. This instruction is usually part of the Ship’s Organization Manual and is the basis for department and division instructions. 3-2

Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuels (HERF) Many studies have been done about fuel vapors being accidentally ignited by electromagnetic radiation. Tests aboard ships and in laboratories have shown that the chances of this happening are low because of other conditions that must exist at the same time to support combustion of the fuel. Although accidental ignition of fuel by RFR is unlikely, you still need to be aware of the potential hazards. The most likely time this might occur is during a ship’s refueling evolutions, commonly called UNREPs (Underway Replenishment). Many ships also carry at least one helicopter or have the ability to refuel a helicopter and, therefore, carry fuel to support helo operations. All of these operations are inherently dangerous by themselves and require the utmost attention and alertness. As a junior Fire Controlman you most likely will be personally involved in these refueling operations. You need to be aware of the potential hazards associated with fire-control radar and fuel. As a senior Fire Controlman, you need to know the hazards of electromagnetic radiation to fuel, so you can ensure that your division personnel are working in a safe environment. RADAR RESTRICTIONS .— Electromagnetic Radiation Hazards (U) (Hazards to Personnel, Fuel and Other Flammable Material) (U), NA VSEA OP 3565/NA V AIR16-1-529/NA VELEX 0967-LP-624- 6010/V olume I specifies the safe distances from radiating sources at which fueling operations may be conducted. Figure 3-1 indicates safe distances between fueling operations and a conical monopole antenna, based on transmitter power. Each type of antenna has its own chart. Refer to your ship’s Emissions Control (EMCON) bill for specific guidance concerning fueling operations. FUEL RESTRICTIONS .— As the RFR energy radiated from high-powered communications and radar equipment installed on ships increased in recent years, the Navy shifted to less volatile fuels. Under normal operating conditions, volatile mixtures are present only near aircraft fuel vents, open fuel inlets during over-the-wing fueling, and near fuel spills. Before fuel vapors can ignite, three conditions must exist simultaneously: 1. For a given ambient temperature, the mixture must contain a specific ratio of fuel vapor to air. 2. There must be enough energy in the arc or spark to produce the appropriate temperature for ignition. 3. The length of the arc must be sufficient to sustain the heat in the arc for the time required to initiate a flame. Each of these conditions is likely to vary for every situation, and two of the conditions may exist at any given time. Although all three conditions will probably not occur simultaneously, the consequences of an accidental explosion make it very important to be careful. Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Personnel (HERP) The RFR hazard category of most immediate concern to you is HERP. The heat produced by RFR may adversely affect live tissue. If the affected tissue cannot dissipate this heat energy as fast as it is produced, the internal temperature of the body will rise. This may result in damage to the tissue and, if the temperature rise is sufficiently high, in death. The Bureau of Medicine and Surgery has established safe exposure limits for personnel who must work in an electromagnetic field based on the power density of the radiation beam and the time of exposure in the radiation field. Before we discuss these further, we must discuss some additional terms. Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)—This is the rate at which the body absorbs non-ionizing RFR. The threshold at which adverse biological effects begin is 4 watts per kilogram of body mass (W/kg). With a safety factor of 10 added, the accepted threshold is 0.4 W/kg for the whole body, averaged over any 6-minute (0.1 hour) period. A special limit for “hot spot” or limited body exposure has been set at 8.0 W/kg, averaged over any 1 gram of body tissue for any 6-minute period. Although this rate of absorption is very important in determining whether or not a safety hazard exists, it is very difficult to measure. Measuring this rate of absorption can also be dangerous since it requires actual exposure of body tissue. A related measure that gives an acceptable indication of SAR is “Permissible Exposure Limit.” Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)—This is a limit to RFR exposure based on measurements of radiation’s electric field strength (E) or magnetic field strength (H) taken with instruments. You can use available charts to determine whether the 3-3

3-4 GENERAL GUIDANCE CURVE INDICATING POTENTIAL FUELING HAZARD POTENTIAL HAZARD NOTE: THIS CURVE IS FOR GENERAL GUIDANCE AND DOES NOT DENOTE PRECISE AREAS BETWEEN HAZARD AND NO-HAZARD. TRANSMITTER POWER IN KILOWATTS WITH CONICAL MONOPOLE ANTENNA DISTANCE IN FEET AND METERS FROM ANTENNA FCRf0301 Figure 3-1.—Guidance Curve for Potential Fueling Hazards.

strength of the field presents a biological hazard to personnel located at the point where the measurements were taken. PEL readings are the basis for determining RADHAZ safety boundaries. Permissible Exposure Time (PET)—This is the maximum time of exposure to a specific power density for which the PEL will not be exceeded when the exposure is averaged over any 6-minute period. Table 3-1 shows the PET for a variety of radars operated at their normal power levels. If you suspect that you or someone else has been overexposed to EMR, follow the flow chart in figure 3-2. If you confirm your suspicions, the exposure is considered an incident and must be reported as required by Protection of DOD Personnel from Exposure to Radio Frequency Radiation , DOD Instruction 6055.11. RFR HAZARDS TO THE SKIN.— The energy impinging on a person in an electromagnetic field may be scattered, transmitted, or absorbed. The energy absorbed into the body depends upon the dimensions of the body, the electrical properties of the tissues, and the wavelength of the RFR. Thus, the wavelength of the energy and its relationship to a person’s dimensions are important factors bearing on the biological effects produced by RFR. Significant energy absorption will occur only when a personal dimension is equivalent to at least one-tenth of a wavelength. As the frequency of radiation increases, the wavelength decreases and the person’s height represents an increasingly greater number of electrical wavelengths, increasing the danger from RFR exposure. As the frequency is decreased, the wavelength increases and the person becomes a less significant object in the radiation field. Thus, the likelihood of biological damage increases with an increase in radiation frequency. Also, as the radiation frequency increases and the wavelength becomes progressively shorter, the dimensions of parts and appendages of the body become increasingly significant in terms of the number of equivalent electrical wavelengths. When a person stands erect in a RFR field, the body is comparable to a broadband receiving antenna. When any of the major body dimensions are parallel to the RFR energy’s plane of polarization, the produced effects are likely to be more pronounced than when they are oriented in other positions. 3-5 START Was anyone stationed/located in the immediate vicinity of the RFR source? Was the system radiated while some- one was at/near the RFR source? Was PEL exceeded at that location? No No No Yes/TBD No Was person in area exceeding PEL long enough to exceed PET? POTENTIAL REPORTABLE INCIDENT (CONDUCT TEST) NO OVEREXPOSURE INCIDENT Yes/TBD FCRf0302 Figure 3-2.—Personnel RFR exposure decision chart.

Table 3-1.—Permissible Exposure Time Limits—Partial List

XMITTER MODE FIXED BEAM HAZARD MOVING BEAM DISTANCE MAX EXP PERSONNEL DISTANCE METERS FEET TIME HAZARD METERS FEET

AN/APX-72 1 3 6 N/A - -

AN/APX-72A 1 3 6 N/A - -

AN/SPS-29, B, C, E ALL 24 80 0.3 YES 5 17

AN/SPS-37 46 150 0.08 YES 11 35

AN/SPS-37A 76 250 0.5 YES 6 19

AN/SPS-40, A, B 29 95 0.5 YES 1.5 5

AN/SPS-43 46 150 0.2 YES 10 33

AN/SPS-43A 79 260 0.3 YES 5 17

AN/SPS-48E BURNTHRU 427 1400 0.09 YES 6 19

AN/SPS-49 61 200 1.53 NO - -

AN/SPS-52, A, B, C 131 430 0.74 NO - -

AN/SPS-53, A, D, E, J, K, L 1 3 6 NO - -

AN/SPS-58, A, C 1 3 6 NO - -

AN/SPS-60 1 3 6 NO - -

AN/SPS-62 1 3 6 NO - -

AN/SPS-64 1 3 6 NO - -

AN/SPS-66 1 3 6 NO - -

AN/SPY-1 427 1400 0.23 NO - -

AN/SRQ-4 1 3 6 NO - -

AN/TPN-30 AZ/EL 18 60 3.2 NO - -

AN/TPX-42A(V)8 1 3 6 N/A - -

AN/ULQ-6A, B, C 5 15 2.2 N/A - -

AN/UPX-12B 1 3 6 N/A - -

AN/UPX-17 1 3 6 N/A - -

AN/UPX-23 1 3 6 N/A - -

AN/UPX-25(V)4 1 3 6 N/A - -

AN/UPX-27 1 3 6 N/A - -

AN/URN-20, B, C, D(V)1 1 3 6 N/A - -

FCRt0301

3-6

The depth of penetration and coincident heating effects of energy on the human body depend on the energy’s frequency. The region of transition between major damage and minor or no damage is between 1 and 3 GHz. Below 1 GHz, the RFR energy penetrates to the deep body tissues. Above 3 GHz, the heating effect occurs closer to the surface. At the higher frequencies, the body has an inherent warning system in the sensory elements located in the skin. At frequencies between 1 and 3 GHz, the thermal effects are subject to varying degrees of penetration, with the percentage of absorbed energy ranging from 20 to 100 percent. The two microwave cooking oven frequencies fall close to this range. The lower frequency, 915 MHz, produces a deeper heating effect on tissue (i.e., roasts) and is not as effective for surface cooking (browning) as the higher frequency, 2,450 MHz. RFR HAZARD TO THE EYES .—The transparent lens of the eye may be damaged by radiated energy (ultraviolet, infrared, or radio frequency), causing the development of cataracts or opacities. The lens is very susceptible to thermal damage, since it has an inefficient vascular system to circulate blood and exchange heat to the surrounding tissues. Unlike other cells of the body, the cells of the lens cannot be replaced by regrowth. When cells in the lens die or become damaged, a cataract may form. The damaged cells may lose their transparency slowly and, depending upon the extent of damage, cause the individual to suffer impaired vision. Apparently, the presence of even a relatively few damaged cells may act upon other lens cells, either by releasing toxic substances or by preventing normal chemical transformation to take place within other cells. RFR HAZARD TO THE TESTICLES .— Testicular reaction to heat injury from excessive exposure to RFR radiation can be the same as the reaction to a high fever associated with many illnesses. Although a condition of temporary sterility may occur, the condition does not appear to be permanent and will ultimately correct itself. However, injury to the testicles may be permanent because of an extremely high dosage or because of high exposures for extended periods of time (i.e., months to years). SHIPBOARD RADIATION HAZARD ZONES.—Because of the danger of radiation hazards to personnel, the fire control radar is equipped with cutout switches that turn off the transmitter for certain director bearings and elevations. The information concerning cutout zones for your particular installation is located in the radar OPs(Operational Publications). You should know the cutout zones for your particular radar. The equipment OPs also give the radiation pattern and the minimum safe distance for personnel exposed to the mainbeam of the radar. The safe limit of radiation exposure to personnel, established by the Naval Medical Command, is 10 mW/cm 2 averaged over any one-tenth hour period (six minutes). No exposure in a field with a power density in excess of 100 mW/cm 2 is permitted. RFR Burns You can receive an RFR burn if your skin contacts a source of RFR voltage. This is because your skin’s resistance to the current flow in the area of contact produces heat. The effect of this heat on your skin can range from noticeable warmth to a painful burn. Mild RFR burns are usually indicated by small white spots on the skin and possibly the odor of scorched skin. More severe burns may penetrate deeper into the flesh and produce painful and slower healing injuries. For our purposes, “hazardous” will be associated with the RFR voltage level sufficient to cause pain, visible skin damage, or an involuntary reaction. The term hazard does not include the lower voltage that causes annoyance, a stinging sensation, or mild heating of the skin. The Naval Ships Engineering Center has prescribed that an open circuit RFR voltage exceeding 140 volts on an object in an RFR radiation field be considered hazardous. A common source of potential RFR burns is crane hooks. Transmitting antennas can induce RFR voltages in nearby crane structures and wire ropes. Figure 3-3 shows areas on a crane in which inductive and capacitive charges may be induced by RFR. Some crane/antenna problems can be eliminated by relocating the associated antennas, but each installation requires special considerations. The locations of ship’s antennas are based on the desired radiation patterns, taking into account the physical limitations imposed by the ship’s structure. Often, the relocation of antennas, although physically permissible, is not feasible because of the location of the associated transmitters. RFR voltages measured aboard ships show that resonance effects may occur at frequencies between 2 and 30 Mhz. The careful use of frequency can reduce the coupling of RFR voltages induced in crane structures and rigging. A better approach, however, is the use of RFR high voltage insulator links, which 3-7

provide protection for personnel against RFR burns. (Refer to Link RFR High Voltage Insulator for Ship Cranes, MIL-L-24410 (SHIPS)). Two separate bands of fiberglass filament wound on two zinc-coated steel saddles provide the required high electrical resistance, low capacitance, high tensile strength, ruggedness and fail-safe features of the insulator links. While the inner band normally carries the full working load, the outer band can carry the full working load if the inner band breaks. When proper precautions are taken, personnel handling rigging will not be harmed as long as nearby electronic transmitting equipment is operated at an output of 250 watts or less, average (at any frequency). HOWEVER, PERSONNEL SHOULD BE CONSTANTLY ALERT TO THE FACT THAT EVEN UNDER THE ABOVE OPERATIONAL LIMITS, ELECTRONIC TRANSMITTING EQUIPMENT CAN CAUSE HAZARDOUS VOLTAGES TO BE INDUCED IN THE STAND- ING RIGGING AND OTHER PORTIONS OF A SHIP’S STRUCTURE, PARTICULARLY STRUCTURES AND OBJECTS (i.e., AIRPLANES AND HELICOPTERS) THAT PROTRUDE FROM THE SHIP IN THE SAME PLANE AS THE RADIATING SOURCE. The RFR voltage induced in a ship’s structures, rigging, or other objects will cause burns to personnel when they contact conductive objects. The burn hazard problem, its causes, and remedial techniques are discussed in chapter 3 (“RFR Burns”) of Electromagnetic Radiation Hazards (U) (Hazards to Personnel, Fuel and Other Flammable Material) (U), NA VSEA OP 3565/NA V AIR 16-1-529/ NA VELEX 0967-LP-624- 6010/V olume I. MAN ALOFT SAFETY Since many areas on the exterior of a ship that contain radar equipment are inaccessible from decks or built-in work platforms, someone must go aloft to work in these areas. We define “aloft” as any mast, kingpost, or other structure where the potential for a fall exists. Probably the greatest hazard associated with working aloft is the danger of a fall. Other hazards include electrical shock, radiation burns, asphyxiation from stack gasses, and the dropping of objects. As long as nearby equipment is turned off, you should not have to worry about receiving a shock from current generated by the equipment. However, you must be aware of the possibility of shock due to static charges. Static charges are caused by electrically charged particles that exist naturally in the water. Under certain conditions these charged particles collect on metallic objects such as wire antennas and produce a shock hazard. You can eliminate this hazard by grounding these objects. Shocks from static charges will not harm you directly, but the surprise of such a shock may cause you to fall. 3-8 TRANSMIT ANTENNA C L L C FCRf0303 Figure 3-3.—Electrical equivalent of cargo handling equipment.

WORKING ALOFT CHECK SHEET Because of the associated dangers, no one may go aloft on masts, stacks, or kingposts without first obtaining permission from the Officer of the Deck (OOD), as prescribed by theNavy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNA VINST 5100.19 series. Before granting permission, the OOD must ensure that the Working Aloft Check Sheet (fig. 3-4) has been properly completed and routed. When the ship is underway, the commanding officer’s permission is required to work 3-9 FCRf0304 Figure 3-4.—Sample Working Aloft Check Sheet.

aloft. The OOD will ensure that appropriate signal flags are hoisted. (KILO for personnel working aloft; KILO THREE for personnel working aloft and over the side.) Before the work begins and every 15 minutes thereafter, he will have the word passed over the 1 MC, “DO NOT ROTATE OR RADIATE ANY ELECTRICAL OR ELECTRONIC EQUIPMENT WHILE PERSONNEL ARE WORKING ALOFT.” Additionally the OOD will inform the ships in the vicinity that personnel will be working aloft to ensure that they take appropriate action on the operation of their electrical and electronic equipment. Departments concerned must ensure that all radio transmitters and radars that pose radiation hazards are placed in the STANDBY condition and that a sign reading “SECURED. PERSONNEL ALOFT. DATE _______ TIME _______ INITIALS ________ ” is placed on the equipment. You should always check your ship’s instruction (Man Aloft Bill) for specific guidance before you go aloft. Here are some general guidelines to follow when you go aloft: 1. Use a climber sleeve assembly in conjunction with the safety harness where a climber safety rail is installed. 2. Attach safety lanyards to all tools, if practical. Never carry tools up and down ladders. Rig a line and raise or lower your tools in a safe container. 3. Stop work when the ship begins to roll in excess of 10 degrees, or to pitch in excess of 6 degrees, when wind speed is greater than 30 knots, and when an ice storm or lightning threatens. 4. Be sure the petty officer-in-charge has marked off an area below the zone of work and keeps all unnecessary personnel clear. If the slightest chance of danger exists, have personnel in the area moved to safety. 5. Read all safety placards posted in the area before you begin the work. 6. Wear personal protective equipment, such as hearing protection, goggles, gloves, or a respirator for hazards other than RFR. 7. When you perform hot work, replace the personal safety and staging or boatswain chair fiber lines with wire rope. Personal safety lines must consist of CRESS wire rope. Most ships in today’s Navy are aviation capable. Any loose materials or tools that you leave in an outside work area may become foreign object damage (FOD) material. FOD material can be sucked into aircraft engines (causing extensive damage) or blown around by engine exhaust or rotor wash (possibly injuring someone). You must learn the importance of foreign object damage (FOD) control. Supervisory personnel are responsible for ensuring that assigned personnel who work on the mast and other topside areas receive training on the importance of FOD control. After completing any work topside, you must ensure that all tools and materials are removed from the work area. Metallic items left in these areas may also create electromagnetic interference problems. SAFETY HARNESS For your own safety, you should wear an approved parachute-type safety harness (fig. 3-5) with a safety lanyard and a tending line (as required) with double locking snap hooks whenever you work aloft. (The lineman-type safety belt is no longer authorized for use.) Safety harnesses should be checked periodically as prescribed by the Planned Maintenance System. Place the tools that you will use on the job in a canvas bag and haul the bag up with a line to the job location. To guard against dropping tools and seriously injuring someone, tie the tool you are using to your safety harness with a piece of line. The safety harness assembly consists of the following components: 1. Safety harness with lanyards 2. Working lanyard nylon 3. Safety lanyard with Dyna-Brake 4. Safety harness 5. Safety climbing sleeve W ARNING SIGNS Warning signs and suitable guards should be posted conspicuously in the appropriate places for the following purposes: • To keep personnel from accidentally coming into contact with dangerous voltages; • To warn personnel about possible explosive vapors and RFR radiation; • To warn personnel working aloft about the poisonous effects of stack gases; 3-10

• To warn of other dangers that may cause injuries to personnel. Installation of equipment is not considered complete unless appropriate warning signs are posted conspicuously. HIGH VOLTAGE W ARNING SIGN High voltage and shock hazard warning signs should be installed on or in the vicinity of equipment or accessories having exposed conductors at potentials of 30 volts (root mean square or dc) or above. Exposed conductors include those from which personnel may receive a shock by physical contact or by voltage arc over. The signs should be posted so that they are obvious and can be clearly read by personnel entering the area. Compartments or walk-in enclosures containing equipment with exposed conductors presenting shock hazards in excess of 500 volts (root mean square or dc) should have a “Danger High V oltage” sign (fig. 3-6) posted conspicuously within each entrance. Compartments or walk-in enclosures containing equipment with exposed conductors presenting shock hazards between 30 volts (RMS or dc) and 500 volts (RMS or dc) should have either a “Danger High V oltage” sign or a “Danger Shock Hazard” sign posted conspicuously within each entrance. STACK GAS W ARNING SIGN A warning sign to alert personnel working aloft near smoke pipe (stack) gases is shown in figure 3-7. One sign should be mounted near the bottom of each access ladder leading aloft. Another sign should be located at the top of each ladder but mounted on the base of the antenna pedestal. 3-11 FCRf0305 FRONT SIDE Figure 3-5.—Parachute-type safety harness. FCRf0306 Figure 3-6.—High voltage warning sign.

RFR HAZARD W ARNING SIGNS There are six RFR radiation hazard (RADHAZ) warning signs (fig.3-8). Requisitioning information is provided on the signs themselves. Consult with your leading petty officer (LPO) to obtain the appropriate signs if they are not posted in your workspace. RADHAZ signs are made of anodized aluminum and come in two authorized sizes: large (14-inches by 14-inches) and small (5-inches by 5-inches). The large signs are reserved for shore use. The small signs may be used either aboard ship or ashore. The signs shown in figure 3-8 were approved for use in 1990. Some old style signs may still be posted in various work areas. If you find older style RADHAZ signs posted in an area, you do not have to replace them with the new style signs unless they are damaged or illegible. The purpose of each type of RADHAZ sign is explained in the following paragarphs. Type 1—“W ARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD . . . KEEP MOVING” The type 1 sign advises personnel not to linger in an area surrounding HF antennas where RFR permissible exposure limit (PEL) can be exceeded. There is no danger from exposure to HF radiation in these areas for short periods. However, no one should remain within the area (defined by a 4-inch red line/circle on the deck) longer than 3 minutes within a 6 minute period. When type 1 signs are required, install them at eye level, or where they can be seen easily, outside the PEL boundary. Type 2—“W ARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD . . . BEYOND THIS POINT” The type 2 sign is used to keep personnel from proceeding past a designated point unless they comply with established RADHAZ avoidance procedures. These procedures are discussed in ship’s doctrine, such as the “MAN ALOFT BILL.” You will probably not find deck markings in these areas. Type 2 signs are installed at eye level at the bottom of vertical ladders or suspended at waist level between the handrails of inclined ladders. When type 2 signs are used as temporary barriers, such as when weapons direction radars are radiating, they are installed at waist level on a nonmetallic line. Type 3—“W ARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD . . . BURN HAZARD” The type 3 sign advises personnel to use special handling procedures when they touch a designated metallic object, or simply to not touch it. This object is an RFR burn source when it is illuminated by energy from a nearby transmitting antenna. Although the hazard may exist only at certain frequencies or power levels, personnel should regard the object as a hazard unless the transmitter is secured. NOTE: Whenever possible, the RFR burn source should be replaced with a nonmetallic substitute or relocated or reoriented to eliminate the hazard before resorting to a type 3 sign for personnel protection. A type 3 sign should be installed on the RFR burn source or in the immediate vicinity where it can be seen easily. When used on cargo handling running rigging, type 3 signs should be mounted on the hook insulator. Personnel should be warned to not touch the wire/rigging above the insulator. More than one type 3 sign should be installed on larger burn sources that can be approached from multiple directions. Type 4—“W ARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD . . . FUELING OPERATIONS” The type 4 sign advises of the hazards of electromagnetic radiation to fuels (HERF). These signs are normally used only on ships that carry aviation gasoline (A VGAS) or automotive gasoline (MOGAS). Marine diesel fuel and JP-5 jet fuel are not 3-12 PERSONNEL ARE CAUTIONED TO GUARD AGAINST POISONOUS EFFECTS OF SMOKE PIPE GASES WHILE SERVICING EQUIPMENT ALOFT. WHEN SERVICING EQUIPMENT IN THE WAY OF SMOKE PIPE GASES USE OXYGEN BREATHING APPARATUS AND A TELEPHONE CHEST OR THROAT MICROPHONE SET FOR COMMUNICATION WITH OTHERS IN WORKING PARTY. OBTAIN NECESSARY EQUIPMENT BEFORE GOING ALOFT. FCRf0307 Figure 3-7.—Stack gas warning sign.

3-13 WARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD WARNING HAZARD TO ORDNANCE RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARDCHECK WITH COMMAND AUTHORITY BEFORE PROCEEDING BEYOND THIS POINT WARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD CHECK WITH COMMAND AUTHORITY BEFORE PROCEEDING BEYOND THIS POINT WARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD PERSONNEL HAZARD EXISTSIN THIS AREAKEEP MOVING WARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARDPRIOR TO FUELING OPERATIONS CHECK WITH COMMAND AUTHORITY MAY EXIST ON METALLIC OBJECTS WARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD BURN HAZARD IN THIS AREA TYPE 1 - RAD HAZ TYPE 2 - RAD HAZ TYPE 3 - RF BURN HAZARD TYP E 4 - HERF TYPE 5 - RAD HAZ TYPE 6 - HERO FCRf0308 LARGE : 14" X 14" SMALL : 5" X 5" ON ALL SIGNS: GRAY AREA is YELLOW BLACK AREA is RED BACKGROUND is WHITE LETTERING is BLACK Figure 3-8.—Sample RADHAZ signs.

considered to have a HERF problem and require no special electromagnetic safety precautions during fueling. Most naval ships do not carry gasoline. An exception to this is amphibious ships carrying gasoline-powered landing vehicles. Aboard ships that carry A VGAS or MOGAS, personnel should observe the following precautions during fueling or fuel transfer operations: 1. Secure all transmitting antennas located within the quadrant of the ship in which fueling is being conducted. 2. Ensure that RADHAZ cutouts for microwave radiators are not overridden during fueling, which could result in the illumination of the fueling areas. 3. Do not energize any radar or communications transmitter on any aircraft or vehicle. 4. Do not make or break any electrical, static ground wire, or tie down connection, or any metallic connection to the aircraft or motor vehicle while it is being fueled. Make the connections before the fueling commences. Break them afterward. Type 5—“W ARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD (SPECIAL CONDITION)” The type 5 sign has a blank area for filling in special safety precautions. Its purpose is to advise personnel of procedures to follow when other RADHAZ warning signs are not appropriate. Examples of directions that can be filled in on a type 5 sign include: • “Inform OOD before placing system in radiate.” • “In manual mode, do not depress below horizon between ______ and _______ degrees relative.” • “Ensure temporary exclusion barriers are in place before radiating.” • “Do not stop antenna between _______ and _______ degrees while radiating.” A type 5 sign is normally installed below decks in a system operating room. It should be installed in the vicinity of controls such as a radiate switch or antenna control switch, where the person operating the gear in normal operation can see it. When mounted on system cabinets or control panels, RADHAZ signs should not obscure switch labels, meters, indicators or nameplate data. Type 6—“W ARNING RADIO FREQUENCY HAZARD . . . HAZARD TO ORDNANCE” The type 6 sign advises of hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance (HERO). NA VSEA OP 3565 explains the purpose of HERO signs and where to place them. ROTATION HAZARD W ARNING Rotating directors present a serious danger to personnel near them. To guard against this hazard, be sure the topside area near the directors is cleared of all personnel before you energize a director. “DANGER ROTATION HAZARD” warnings should also be posted or painted in conspicuous places to alert unwary personnel. OTHER RADAR HAZARDS The hazards we discussed above occur primarily on the exterior of the ship. We now need to discuss some of the radar hazards you may encounter inside the ship. CATHODE-RAY TUBES (CRTs) Cathode-ray tubes can be very dangerous and should always be handled with extreme caution. The glass envelope encloses a high vacuum, and because of its large surface area, is subject to considerable force by atmospheric pressure. (The total force on the surface of a 10-inch CRT is 3,750 pounds or nearly 2 tons; over 1,000 pounds is exerted on its face alone.) Proper handling and disposal instructions for a CRT are as follows: • Avoid scratching or striking the surface. • Do not use excessive force when you remove or replace the CRT in its deflection yoke or its socket. • Do not try to remove an electromagnetic CRT from its yoke until you have discharged the high voltage from the anode connector (hole). • Never hold a CRT by its neck. • When you set a CRT down, always place its face down on a thick piece of felt, rubber, or smooth cloth. • Always handle the CRT gently. Rough handling or a sharp blow on the service bench can displace 3-14

the electrodes within the tube, causing faulty operation. • Wear safety glasses and gloves whenever you handle a CRT. RADIOACTIVE ELECTRON TUBES Electron tubes containing radioactive material are common to radar equipment. These tubes are known as Transmit-Receive (TR), antitransmit-receive (ATR), spark-gap, voltage-regulator, gas-switching, and cold-cathode gas-rectifier tubes. Some of these tubes contain radioactive material that has a dangerous intensity level. Such tubes are so marked according to military specifications. In addition, all equipment containing radioactive tubes must have a standard warning label attached where maintenance personnel can see it as they enter the equipment. As long as these electron tubes remain intact and are not broken, no great hazard exists. However, if they are broken, the radioactive material may become a potential hazard. The radioactivity in a normal collection of electron tubes in a maintenance shop does not approach a dangerous level, and the hazards of injury from exposure are slight. However, at major supply points, the storage of large quantities of radioactive electron tubes in a relatively small area may create a hazard. If you work in an area where a large quantity of radioactive tubes is stored, you should become thoroughly familiar with the safety practices contained in Radiation Health Protection Manual , NA VMED P-5055. By complying strictly with the prescribed safety precautions and procedures of this manual, you should be able to avoid accidents and maintain a work environment that is conducive to good health. The hazardous materials information system (HMIS) contains a listing of radioactive tubes, along with proper stowage techniques and disposal procedures. Afloat Supply Procedures, NA VSUP P-485 contains detailed custody procedures. Be sure you use proper procedures whenever you dispose of a radioactive tube. Also, be aware that federal and state disposal regulations may vary. Any time you handle radioactive electron tubes, take the following precautions: 1. Do not remove a radioactive tube from its carton until just before you actually install it. 2. When you remove a tube containing a radioactive material from equipment, place it in an appropriate carton to keep it from breaking. 3. Never carry a radioactive tube in your pocket, or elsewhere on your person, in such a way that could cause the tube to break. 4. If you do break a radioactive tube, notify the appropriate authority and obtain the services of qualified radiological personnel immediately. The basic procedures for cleaning the area are covered in the EIMB,General, Section 3. If you are authorized to clean the area, get a radioactive spill kit with all the materials to clean the area quickly and properly. The ship must have at least one radioactive spill disposal kit for its electronic spaces. It may have more, depending on the number and location of spaces in which radioactive tubes are used or stored. Each kit should contain the following items: • Container—Must be large enough to hold all cleanup materials and pieces of broken radioactive tubes and must be airtight. A three-pound coffee can with a plastic lid or 30/50 caliber ammo box is an acceptable container. The container must be clearly marked “RADIOACTIVE SPILL DISPOSAL KIT.” • Rubber gloves—Two pairs of surgical latex gloves to prevent contact with contaminated material. • Forceps or hemostats—Used for picking up large pieces. • Masking tape—One roll of 2-inch-wide tape for picking up small pieces. • Gauze pads or rags—One stack of 4-inch gauze pads (50 pads or more) for wiping down the area. Do NOT use sponges. • Container of water—A small container of water (approximately 2 ounces) in an unbreakable container, for wetting the gauze pads or rags. • Boundary rope and appropriate signs—Used for marking the contaminated area. • Respirator—With filters that are specific for radionuclides. 3-15

• Radioactive material stickers—For labeling the material to be disposed of. (These can be made locally). • Two 12-inch plastic bags—For containing the used material. • Procedures—Step-by-step cleanup procedures. • Other items recommended by the type commander and the fleet training group. 5. Isolate the immediate area of exposure to protect other personnel from possible contamination and exposure. 6. Follow the established procedures set forth in NA VMED P-5055. 7. Do not permit contaminated material to contact any part of your body. 8. Avoid breathing any vapor or dust that may be released by tube breakage. 9. Wear rubber or plastic gloves at all times during cleanup and decontamination procedures. 10. Use a HEPA filtered vacuum cleaner (with an approved disposal collection bag) to remove the pieces of the tube. The vacuum cleaner should be designated for “Spill Response” or “For Cleanup of Radioactive Materials ONLY” and use the standard magenta/yellow markings for labeling. If a vacuum cleaner is not available, use forceps and/or a wet cloth to wipe the affected area. In this case, be sure to make one stroke at a time. DO NOT use a back-and-forth motion. After each stroke, fold the cloth in half, always holding one clean side and using the other for the new stroke. (Dispose of the cloth in the manner stated in item 14.) 11. Do not allow any food or drink to be brought into the contaminated area or near any radioactive material. 12. Immediately after leaving a contaminated area, if you handled radioactive material in any way, remove any contaminated clothing. Also wash your hands and arms thoroughly with soap and water and rinse them with clean water. 13. Immediately notify a medical officer if you sustain a wound from a sharp radioactive object. If a medical officer cannot reach the scene immediately, stimulate mild bleeding by applying pressure about the wound and using suction bulbs. DO NOT USE YOUR MOUTH. If the wound is a puncture type, or the opening is small, make an incision to promote free bleeding, and to enable cleaning and flushing of the wound. 14. When you clean a contaminated area, seal all debris, cleaning cloths, and collection bags in a container such as a plastic bag, heavy wax paper, or glass jar. Place the container in a steel can until it can be disposed of properly. Decontaminate, using soap and water, all tools and implements you used to remove a radioactive substance. Monitor the tools and implements for radiation with an authorized radiac set. They should emit less than 0.1 MR/HR at the surface. (MR/HR is the abbreviation for milliroentgen/hour,which is defined as a unit of radioactive dose of exposure.) References to Consult Concerning Radioactive Tubes The following is a basic list of publications conerning the handling and use of radioactive tubes. – Department of Defense Hazardous Materials Information System (HMIS), DOD 6050.1-L – Radiation Health Protection Manual , NA VMED P-5055 – Afloat Supply Procedures, NA VSUP P-485 – EIMB, General – EIMB, Radiac – Safety Precautions for Forces Afloat – Naval Ships’ Technical Manual, Chapter 400 Technical Assistance For technical assistance and advice regarding identification, stowage, or disposal of radioactive tubes, contact: Officer In Charge Naval Sea Systems Command Detachment Radiological Affairs Support Officer (NA VSEADET, RASO) Naval Weapons Station Yorktown, V A 23691-5098 3-16

X-RAY EMISSIONS X-rays may be produced by high-voltage electronic equipment. X-rays can penetrate human tissue and cause both temporary and permanent damage. Unless the dosage is extremely high, there will be no noticeable effects for days, weeks, or even years after the exposure. The sources of these x-rays are usually confined to magnetrons, klystrons, and CRTs. Where these types of components are used, you should not linger near any equipment on which the equipment covers have been removed. Klystrons, magnetrons, rectifiers, or other tubes that use an excitation of 15,000 volts or more may emit x-rays out to a few feet, thus endangering you or other unshielded personnel standing or working close to the tubes. If you must perform maintenance on x-ray emitting devices, take the following precautions: • Observe all warning signs (fig. 3-9) on the equipment and all written precautions in the equipment technical manual. • Do NOT bypass interlocks that prevent the servicing of operating equipment with the x-ray shield removed, unless the technical manual requires you to do so. • Be sure to replace all protective x-ray shielding when you finish the servicing. SUMMARY This chapter has presented radar safety measures you are expected to practice in your daily work. As with electrical and electronic safety, the greatest danger you will face as a Fire Controlman is becoming too familiar with the safety hazards you will face. COMPLACENCY KILLS! Radio frequency energy is not the only hazard associated with working around radar. Working aloft has its own set of hazards. Be aware of your environment and other evolutions that are happening around you. It is your responsibility to know what warning signs mean and where they should be posted. Remember, as a Fire Controlman, you have a responsibility to yourself and to your shipmates to always be alert to detect and report hazardous work practices and conditions. 3-17 CAUTION X-RAY THIS DEVICE MAY PRODUCE X-RAYS WHEN ENERGIZED. OPERATING PERSONNEL MUST BE PROTECTED BY APPROPRI- ATE SHIELDING. X-RAY CAUTION SIGNS OR LABELS SHOULD BE PERMANENTLY ATTACHED TO EQUIPMENT DIRECTING OPER- ATING PERSONNEL NEVER TO OPERATE THIS DEVICE WITHOUT X-RAY SHIELDING IN PLACE. FCRf0809 Figure 3-9.—X-ray caution label.

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APPENDIX I REFERENCES USED TO DEVELOP THIS NRTC NOTE: Although the following references were current when this NRTC was published, their continued currency cannot be assured. When consulting these references, keep in mind that they may have been revised to reflect new technology or revised methods, practices, or procedures; therefore, you need to be sure that you are studying the latest references. Chapter 1 Combat Systems Technical Operations Manual (CSTOM) Electronics Installation and Maintenance Book-General , NA VSEA SE000-00-EIM-100, Electronics Installation and Maintenance Book (EIMB), Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, DC, 1983. Navy Electricity and Electronics Training Series (NEETS), Module 9 , Introduction to Wave-Generation and Wave-Shaping Circuits , NA VEDTRA 172-09-00-83, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center, Pensacola, FL, 1983. Navy Electricity and Electronics Training Series (NEETS), Module 10, Introduction to Wave Propagation, Transmission Lines, and Antennas , NA VEDTRA B72-10-00-93, Naval Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, FL, 1993. Navy Electricity and Electronics Training Series (NEETS), Module 11, Microwave Principles , NA VEDTRA 172-11-00-87, Navy Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, FL, 1987. Navy Electricity and Electronics Training Series (NEETS), Module 15, Principles of Synchros, Servos, and Gyros , NA VEDTRA B72-15-00-93, Naval Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, FL, 1993. Navy Electricity and Electronics Training Series (NEETS), Module 18, Radar Principles, NA VEDTRA 172-18-00-84, Naval Education and Training Program Development Center, Pensacola, FL, 1984. Chapter 2 A1-F18AC-744-100, Organizational Maintenance Principles of Operation F orward Looking Infrared System, Chapter 3, Principles of Operation (0801-LP-1022-2428) Harpoon US Navy Fact File (Harpoon Missile)website: http://www.chinfo.navy.mil/navpalib/factfile/missile/wep-harp.html Harpoon website: www.fas.org/man/dod-101/sys/smart/agm-84.htm OP 3541, V olume 1, Revision 2, AN/SPG-51D (0610-LP-354-1129) Op 3594, V olume 7A,HARPOON OP 4350, Transmitter , Control and Power Supply for AN/SPG-51D AI-1

RAM website: www.raytheon.com/products/ram/index.html RAM (Rolling Air Fram missile (RAM) website: http://www.chinfo.navy.mil/navpalib/factfile/missile/wep-ram.html SE213-UE-MMO-010, Radar Set AN/SPS-48E ; V olume 1 Part 1, Radar set, Chapter 1, General Information (0910-LP-586-4200) SE213-VC-MMO-010, Radar Set AN/SPS-52C; TM V olume 1, Chapters 1 and 2 (0910-LP-064-5800) SW221-JO-MMO-010, Close-In Weapon System, Mk 15, Mod 11-14 (PHALANX); Introduction to CIWS, V olume 1 (0640-LP-167-5800) SW230-AO-SOM-060, Target Acquisitioning System (TAS) Mk 23; Operations Manual for CV/CVN class, Integrated with CDS (0640-LP-168-1900) SW261-SA-GYD-010, Ship Self Defense System (SSDS); Mk 1 Mod 0, Installation and Checkout Support Guide (0640-LP-021-6420) SW272-AM-AEG-010, AEGIS RADAR SYSTEM for SPY-1D; Description, Operation and Maintenance (0640-LP-013-4590) SW272-AJ-AEG-020, AEGIS RADAR SYSTEM HANDBOOK for SPY-1B/D; B/L 5.3/3A (0640-LP-021-7570) SW279-EJ-AEG-010, AEGIS ANTENNA GROUP for SPY-1D; Description and Operation (0640-LP-013-4490) TE660-AX-PDD-230 , AN/SYS-2 (V) 1 Radar Satellite Simulation Program; Program Description Document, V olume 23; AN/SPS-48E (0910-LP-148-2900) TOMAHAWK (Tomahawk Missile) website: http://www.chinfo.navy.mil/navpalib/factfile/missile/wep-toma.html TW210-AA-GYD-010, Thermal Imaging Sensor System (TISS); AN/SAY-2; Installation and Checkout Support Guide (0910-LP-017-6120) TW271-T2-IDS-010, MK 92 Mod 2 Combined Antenna System (0910-LP-019-9580) Weapons systems websites: (1) www.swdg.navy.smil.mil (2) www.fas.org Chapter 3 Department of Defense Directive 4715.1, “Environmental Security,” February 24, 1996. Department of Defense Instruction 6055.11, “Protection of DoD Personnel from Exposure to Radiofrequency Radiation and Military Exempt Lasers,” February 21, 1995. Electromagnetic Radiation Hazards (Hazards to Ordnance) , NA VSEA OP 3565, V olume II, Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, DC, April 1995. Electromagnetic Radiation Hazards (Hazards to Personnel, Fuel, and Other Flammable Material), NA VSEA OP 3565, V olume I, Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, DC, 1979. Executive Order, 12196, “Occupational Safety and Health Programs for Federal Employees,” February 26, 1980. AI-2

Contributing Commands/Facilities Commander Operational Test and Evaluation Force (COMOPTEVFOR), Surface Warfare Division, Code 70 FC “A” School Naval Air Warfare Center (NAWC) Weapons Division, Point Mugu Naval Air Warfare Center Weapons Division (NAWCWD), Fleet Help Desk, China Lake Naval Research Laboratory (NRL) Naval Sea Systems Command (NA VSEASYSCOM) NA VY SEA Test and Evaluation Office Naval Surface Warfare Center, Carderock Division (NSWCCD) Smart Ship Program Naval Surface Warfare Center, Dahlgren Division (NSWCDD) Surface Warfare Officer School (SWOS) AI-3

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INDEX A Accelerometers, 1-16 Acquisition, 1-18, 2-11 Acquisition phase, 1-19, 2-11 Active homing, 1-16 Air-search radar, 1-12, 2-1 AN equipment indicator system, 1-12 AN/SPG-51 radar, 1-21 AN/SPG-60 radar, 1-21, 2-6 AN/SPG-62 radar, 1-21, 2-6 AN/SPQ-9 antenna, 1-21, 2-5 AN/SPS-48, radar, 1-21, 2-1 AN/SPY-1 radar, 1-22, 2-3 Antenna lenses, 1-9 Antenna system, 1-7 array types, 1-10 feedhorns, 1-9 horn radiators, 1-9 lens antenna, 1-9 parabolic reflectors, 1-8 Array antennas, 1-10 Atmospheric conditions, 1-5 B Basic radar systems, 1-1, 1-5 Beam deflection, 1-10 Beam-rider guidance, 1-16 Beam-riding missile, 1-16 Bearing, 1-3 Bearing resolution, 1-5 Boost phase, 1-14 C Cathode-ray tubes (CRTs), 1-3, 1-6, 3-15 Close-in weapon system (CIWS), 1-11, 1-22, 2-8 Combined antenna system (CAS), 1-21, 2-9 Conducting (acceleration) lens, 1-9 Continuous wave illumination (CWI), 1-4, 1-11 Control group, 1-11 Control systems, missile, 1-14 Cruise missile systems, 2-14 D Designation phase, 1-18 Detect-to-engage sequence, 1-19, 2-11 Detection, 1-19, 2-11 acquisition and tracking, 1-19 guidance (missiles), 1-16 launcher/gun positioning, 2-12 prediction, 1-19 Dielectric (delay) lens, 1-9 Dielectric material, 1-9 Displays, 1-6 type A, 1-6 type B, 1-6 type E, 1-6 type P, 1-7 Doppler effect, 1-4 Dry air systems, 1-11 Ducting effect, 1-5 Duplex, 1-4, 1-6 E Electromagnetic radiation, 3-1 Engaging, 2-12 Evaluation, 1-20 F Feed horns, 1-9 Fire-control problem, 1-19 detect to engage sequence, 1-19, 2-11 Fire-control radar, 1-21, 2-3 Forward looking infra-red radar (FLIR), 1-22 Frequency-modulated continuous wave (FM-CW), 1-4 G GMFCS, 1-20 Guidance (missiles), 1-14, 1-20 phases, 1-14 types of, 1-16 Guided missile fire control system, 1-14 Gyroscopes, 1-11 H HARPOON missile, 1-14, 1-17, 2-14 Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to fuels (HERF), 3-3 Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance (HERO), 3-2 Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to personnel (HERP), 3-3 permissible exposure limit (PEL), 3-4 permissible exposure time (PET), 3-5 specific absorption rate (SAR), 3-3 High frequency surface wave radar, 1-22, 2-10 HOJ mode, 1-18 Home-on-jamming, 1-18 Homing guidance, 1-16 active, 1-17 passive, 1-18 semiactive, 1-17 Horizontal plane, 1-2, 1-11 Horn radiators, 1-8, 1-9 I Inertial guidance, 1-16 Infrared search and track (IRST), 2-11 Initial phase, 1-14 Intermediate frequency (IF), 1-6 J Jamming, 1-18 JETDS, 1-12 Joint Army-Navy nomenclature system, 1-12 Joint electronics type designation system, 1-12 Joint-service standardized classification system, 1-12 L Lens antenna, 1-9 M Man aloft, 3-9 Maximum range, 1-3 Midcourse phase, 1-15 Minimum range, 1-3 Missile axes, 1-14 Missile guidance radar, 1-14 Mk 7 Aegis fire control system, 2-3 Mk 23 target acquisitioning system (TAS), 1-10, 1-21, 2-6 Mk 34 gun weapon system, 1-22, 2-4 Mk 45 light weight gun, 1-21, 2-5 Mk 74 fire control system, 1-21 Mk 75 light weight gun, 1-21, 2-8 Mk 86 gun fire control system (GFCS), 1-10, 1-21, 2-4, 2-5 Mk 91 fire control system, 1-21, 2-6, 2-7 Mk 92 combined antenna system (CAS), 1-10, 1-19, 1-21, 2-7 Mk 92 fire control system, 1-21 Mk 95 radar, 1-21, 2-9 Mk 99 missile fire control system, 1-21, 2-4 Moving target indicator (MTI), 1-6, 2-6 Multi-dimensional radar, 1-13 Multi-function radar, 2-10 O Optical sighting system (OSS), 1-22 Optronics systems, 1-22; 2-10 thermal imaging sensor system (TISS), 1-22, 2-10 P Parabolic reflectors, 1-8 Passive homing, 1-18 Phases of missile guidance, 1-14 initial (boost), 1-14 midcourse, 1-15 terminal, 1-15 Phases of radar operation, 1-18 acquisition, 1-15 designation, 1-18 track, 1-18 Plan position indicator (PPI), 1-7 Planar array antenna, 1-10 Prediction, 1-19 Pulse modulation, 1-4 Pulse-repetition frequency (PRF), 1-3 Pulse-repetition rate (PRR), 1-3 R Radiation hazard zones, shipboard, 3-7 Radar safety, 3-2 cathode-ray tubes (CRTs), 3-15 HERF, 3-3 HERO, 3-2 HERP, 3-3 RFR hazards, 3-12 x-ray emissions, 3-17 radioactive electron tubes, 3-15 warning signs, 3-11 working aloft, 3-9 Radar system block diagram, 1-5 antenna, 1-8 control group, 1-11 INDEX-1

display, 1-6 duplexer, 1-6 radome, 1-10 receiver, 1-6 stable element, 1-11 support systems, 1-11 synchronizer, 1-6 transmitter, 1-6 Radar guidance beam, 1-16 Radar measurements, 1-2 altitude, 1-3 bearing, 1-3 range, 1-3 Radar operation, 1-5, 2-7, 2-15 phases of, 1-18, 2-7 Radar system accuracy, 1-4 atmospheric conditions, 1-5 bearing resolution, 1-5 other factors, 1-5 range resolution, 1-5 Radar transmission methods, 1-4 continuous wave, 1- 4 pulse modulation, 1-4 Radomes, 1-10 Range, 1-3 minimum range, 1-3 maximum range, 1-3 range accuracy, 1-3 Range accuracy, 1-3 Range resolution, 1-5 Receiver, 1-6 Receiver recovery time, 1-6 Reference coordinate terms, 1-1 Reflected power, 1-10 Reflectors, 1-8 Relative bearing, 1-3 Remote optical sighting system (ROS), 1-22 RF, 1-3 RF interference, 1-18 RFR hazards, 3-12 burns, 3-7 eyes, 3-7 shipboard radiation hazard zones, 3-7 skin, 3-5 testicles, 3-7 S Safety harness, 3-10 Search radar, 1-21, 2-1 SEASPARROW missile system, 1-14, 1-17, 1-22, 2-6, 2-7 Secondary effects, 1-10 Semi-active homing, 1-17 SSDS Mk 1 (Ship Self-Defense System), 1-22, 2-9 Stable elements, 1-11 STANDARD ARM (missiles), 1-18 STANDARD SM-1, 1-14, 1-17, 1-21 STANDARD SM-2 missiles (MR & ER), 1-14, 1-17, 1-22, 2-4 STIR (Separate Target Illuminating Radar), 1-19, 1-21, 2-7, 2-8 Support systems, 1-11 Surface angular measurements, 1-2 Synchronizer, 1-6 T Temperature inversion, 1-5 Terminal phase, 1-15 Thermal imaging sensor system (TISS), 1-22, 2-10 Three-dimensional (3-D) radar, 1-12, 1-14 Tomahawk missile, 2-15, 2-16 Track phase, 1-18 Tracking, 1-19, 2-13 Tracking radar, 1-18 Transmission lines, 1-7 Transmission loss, 1-10 Transmitter, 1-6 True bearing, 1-2 Types of guidance, 1-14 Types of radar, 1-12 W Warning signs, 3-11 high voltage, 3-11 RF, 3-12 stack gas, 3-12 Waveguide, 1-7 Working aloft, 3-9 check sheet, 3-9 safety harness, 3-10 WSN-2, 1-11 WSN-5, 1-11 X X-ray emissions, 3-17 INDEX-2

ASSIGNMENT 1 NOTE: IN THIS ASSIGNMENT, FIGURES MENTIONED IN THE QUESTIONS ARE FOUND IN THE TEXT. 1-1. The term “radar” is an acronym made from the words 1. radio, detection, and roaming 2. radio, distance, and ranging 3. radio, detection, and ranging 4. radio, detection, or ranging 1-2. Radar surface angular measurements are normally made from which direction? 1. North/south 2. East/west 3. Counter-clockwise from true north 4. Clockwise from true north 1-3. The angle measured clockwise from true north in the horizontal plane defines which of the following terms? 1. True bearing/azimuth 2. True horizontal plane 3. Line-of-sight range 4. True north 1-4. What is the primary limiting factor for maximum range of a pulse-radar system? 1. Carrier frequency 2. Peak power of transmitted pulse 3. Receiver sensitivity 4. Pulse-repetition frequency 1-5. The angle between the centerline of the ship and a line pointed directly at a target is known by what term? 1. Relative bearing 2. True bearing 3. Angle north 4. Angular bearing 1-6. What is the most common method used to transmit radar energy? 1. Continuous-wave 2. Pulse-modulation 3. Doppler-wave 4. Frequency-modulation 1-7. What characteristic of continuous-wave radar makes it difficult, if not impossible, to get accurate range measurements? 1. Doppler effect 2. Missile guidance 3. Illumination 4. No specific stop time 1-8. Range resolution is defined as the ability of a radar to perform what action? 1. Separate objects at the same range, but slightly different bearings 2. Distinguish between two targets on the same bearing, but at slightly different ranges 3. Separate objects at different ranges, but slightly different bearings 4. Distinguish between two targets on different bearings, but at the same range 1-9. Which of the following factors affect(s) radar performance? 1. Operator skill 2. Electronic Attack activity 3. Weather conditions 4. All of the above 1-10. According to figure 1-4, what is considered the heart of a pulse radar system? 1. Synchronizer 2. Antenna system 3. Transmitter 4. Duplexer 1 Textbook Assignment: “Introduction to Basic Radar Systems,” chapter 1, pages 1-1 through 1-22 and “Fire-Control Systems,” chapter 2, pages 2-1 through 2-9.

1-11. A certain amount of time is required for a duplexer to disconnect the antenna from the receiver and connect it to the transmitter. What is this switching time called? 1. Receiver recovery time 2. Fast reaction time 3. Detection time 4. Transmitter recovery time 1-12. What radar subsystem is used to convert RF echoes to a lower frequency? 1. Superheterodyne receiver 2. Antenna system 3. Duplexer 4. Transmitter 1-13. Figure 1-5 shows four basic radar displays. Which of the displays uses your own ship as the center of the display? 1. Type A 2. Type B 3. Type P 4. Type E 1-14. An automobile headlight is similar, in shape, to what type of radar reflector? 1. Truncated 2. Parabolic 3. Orange peel 4. Banana peel 1-15. Radar antennas are designed using well- known optical design techniques. Which of the following radar characteristics allows a radar antenna to be designed in this way? 1. Radar operates in the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum 2. Radar operates in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum 3. Radar operates in the VLF region of the electromagnetic spectrum 4. Radar operates in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum 1-16. What general characteristic of a horn radiator is determined by the size of its mouth opening? 1. Symmetry 2. Relativity 3. Conductivity 4. Directivity 1-17. Which of the following design actions can be used to eliminate feedhorn shadows? 1. Making the horn smaller 2. Putting the horn behind the reflector 3. Offsetting the horn from the center of the reflector 4. Making the reflector smaller 1-18. Which of the following antennas are lens type antennas? 1. Conducting and dielectric 2. Optical and electro-optical 3. Flatplane and spherical plane 4. Microwave and plane wave 1-19. In a delay lens, the amount of delay is dependent on what characteristic? 1. Thickness 2. Dielectric constant 3. Angle of reflection 4. Angle of incidence 1-20. Which of the following elements can be used in an array antenna? 1. Slots 2. Dipoles 3. Horns 4. Each of the above 1-21. In an array antenna, what determines the position of the beam? 1. The relative phase between the elements 2. The relative amplitude between the elements 3. The total amplitude of the elements 4. The scan motor 1-22. Which of the following adverse effects in a small radome is caused by reflected power? 1. Beam deflection 2. Transmission loss 3. Antenna mismatch 4. Secondary effects 1-23. What level of maintenance do FC’s normally perform on radomes? 1. Ship’s 2M 2. Factory repairs 3. Technical repairs 4. Preventive maintenance 2

1-24. Which of the following equipment is NOT part of the control group for a radar system? 1. AN/UYK-43 computer 2. AN/BPS-15 radar group 3. RD-358A(V)/UYK magnetic tape unit 4. OJ-535 data terminal set 1-25. Every radar system requires a certain amount of support equipment to operate properly. Which of the following equipment is support equipment? 1. SF6 gas canister 2. Step-down transformer 3. Frequency converter 4. Each of the above 1-26. What is the primary purpose of a stable element? 1. To measure any deviation of a director from the vertical plane 2. To measure approximate deviation from any optical equipment 3. To measure any deviation of a launcher from the horizontal plane 4. To measure approximate deviation from any radar antenna 1-27. What equipment listed below does NOT comply with the Joint Electronics Type Designation System (JETDS)? 1. AN/SPF-40 2. AN/SPS-48E 3. AN/SPG-60 4. AN/SPQ-9B 1-28. What is the primary function of air-search radar? 1. To maintain a 360-degree surveillance 2. To provide security against attacks 3. To provide information for aircraft control 4. To determine aircraft altitude 1-29. The AN/SPY-1 series radar is a multi- dimensional radar. How does it differ from air-search radar? 1. It has a wider vertical beamwidth 2. It has a narrower vertical beamwidth 3. It has a lower transmitting frequency 4. It has a lower output power 1-30. Missile guidance systems consist of two separate systems. An attitude control system is one of those systems. What is the other system? 1. Rocket motor control system 2. Rocket motor thrust system 3. Flight yaw control system 4. Flight path control system 1-31. According to figure 1-17, which of the following components is NOT part of the control subsystem? 1. Computer detector 2. Servo motor 3. Receiver 4. Control surface 1-32. The Standard SM-2 missiles use three phases of guidance. What are they? 1. Boost, dropoff, terminal 2. Boost, midcourse, terminal 3. Guided, midcourse, terminal 4. Unguided, midcourse, terminal 1-33. Which of the following missiles should follow the guidance path shown in figure 1-18B? 1. Standard SM-1 (ER) 2. Standard SM-1 3. Standard SM-2 (MR) 4. Standard SM-2 (ER) 1-34. The initial phase of a missile flight lasts how long? 1. Until the target is destroyed 2. Until the booster recharges 3. Until the booster burns up its fuel 4. Until the target manuevers 1-35. What phase of missile guidance requires fast response to guidance signals? 1. Final phase 2. Boost phase 3. Initial phase 4. Midcourse phase 1-36. In an inertial guidance system, what devices control the missile? 1. Accelerometers 2. Accelerators 3. Fin stabilizers 4. Yaw stabilizers 3

1-37. A beam-rider missile is most effective against which of the following types of targets? 1. Outgoing and long-range 2. Incoming and long-range 3. Incoming and medium-range 4. Outgoing and long-range 1-38. Homing guidance is the most accurate method of missile guidance. What gives it this ability? 1. RF waves 2. Reflected energy 3. Magnetic field energy 4. Guidance error signals 1-39. According to figure 1-21, which of the following terms best describes guidance for a HARPOON missile? 1. Passive homing 2. Semi-active homing 3. Active homing 1-40. Which of the following factors is a drawback of semi-active homing? 1. During its use, the ship is not free to use SMS missiles 2. Its use keeps the system tied to a single target 3. It can only be used with SEASPARROW missiles 4. It can only be used with STANDARD SM-1 missiles 1-41. Figure 1-21 illustrates the different homing guidance methods. Which method is used for a STANDARD ARM missile? 1. Passive homing 2. Semi-active homing 3. Active homing 1-42. What type of data is primarily used in fire-control radar? 1. Continuous positional data 2. Intermittent horizontal data 3. Target resolution data 4. Continuous ship position data 1-43. Which of the following is the correct sequence for modes of radar operation? 1. Designation, acquisition, and search 2. Designation, direction, and search 3. Designation, direction, and track 4. Designation, acquisition, and track 1-44. Search radar is used for what operation of the fire-control problem sequence? 1. Track phase 2. Detection 3. Prediction 4. Evaluation 1-45. Continuous, accurate target position is available during what stage of fire-control problem sequencing? 1. Acquisition and tracking 2. Launcher positioning 3. Missile guidance 4. Evaluation 1-46. Which of the following operations is NOT performed after target detection and acquisition? 1. Establishing a track LOS 2. Determining launcher position angle 3. Positioning the gun mount 4. Establishing a targets initial position 1-47. During the acquisition and tracking phase, why are radar indications of a target considered as instantaneous, present target positions? 1. RF energy travels at the speed of light 2. Target ranges are relatively small 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Target speed is fast 1-48. According to Table 1-2, which of the following radar systems should be used during the designation phase of the fire-control problem sequence? 1. Mk 95 radar 2. Sps 48E 3. Mk 1 4. HF Surface Wave 1-49. Although fire-control radar is more accurate, initial detection of a target is done with search radar. Which of the characteristics listed below enable(s) search radar to initially detect a target? 1. Narrow beam width 2. Wide beam width 3. Long-range 360 degree coverage 4. Both 2 and 3 above 4

1-50. Which system below is a search radar that an FC might work with in today’s Navy? 1. AN/SPS-40(V) 2. SLQ-32(V)3 3. AN/SPS-49 4. AN/SPS-48E 1-51. The AN/SPS-48E radar is a long-range, three- dimensional radar that FC’s work with. How does this radar provide contact range, height, and bearing information? 1. By using D/E band frequency scanning 2. By using E/H band short-dwell time 3. By using E/F band frequency scanning 4. By using D/E band short-dwell time 1-52. Which of the following modes is NOT an SPS-48 radar mode? 1. Equal Angle Coverage 2. Maximum Frequency Management 3. Maximum Energy Management 4. Adaptive Energy Management 1-53. The AN/SPS-48 radar is found on what type(s) of ship? 1. NIMITZ class carriers 2. LCC class amphibious ships 3. ENTERPRISE class carriers 4. All of the above 1-54. Fire-control radar is normally part of larger systems. Which of the following systems are larger gun or missile systems that are associated with fire-control radar? 1. GFCS 2. FCCS 3. GMCM 4. MFCC 1-55. Which of the following systems is/are found on board the USS Paul Hamilton? 1. SPY-1 radar system 2. Mk 99 MFCS 3. Mk 86 GFCS 4. All of the above 1-56. The Mk 7 Aegis FCS is found on board ARLEIGH BURKE class destroyers and TICONDEROGA class cruisers. Which of the following radar systems should you find on board one of these ships? 1. SSDS 2. SPY-1 3. Mk 92 4. CAS 1-57. In reference to figure 2-4, which of the following is NOT a weapon or sensor found on an AEGIS class cruiser? 1. AN/SPS-49 radar 2. Mk 41 vertical launching tubes 3. AN/SPS-40E radar 4. AN/SPG-62 illuminators 1-58. The Mk 99 MFCS provides terminal guidance control for which of the following missiles? 1. TOMAHAWK cruise missile 2. SM-2 anti-air missile 3. SM-1 extended range missile 4. Stinger missile 1-59. What type of radar is the AN/SPG-62? 1. Long-range search radar 2. Short-range tracking radar 3. Missile guidance radar 4. Gun illumination radar 1-60. Which of the following weapons is controlled by the Mk 86 GFCS? 1. Mk 45 5-inch gun 2. Mk 75 3-inch gun 3. Mk 13 missile launcher 4. Mk 45 8-inch gun 1-61. Which of the following radar systems enable the Mk 86 GFCS to support AW gun engagements? 1. CAS and Mk 23 TAS 2. STIR and CAS 3. AN/SPG-9B and AN/SPQ-9A 4. AN/SPQ-9 and Mk 23 TAS 1-62. The AN/SPQ-9B radar can track air and surface targets simultaneously. What characteristics allow it to do this? 1. Real-time signal and data processing 2. Low resolution and narrow beam radar 3. Raw video and azimuth video reference 4. Variable-time signal and beam processing 5

1-63. What modes of operation does the AN/SPQ-9B have? 1. Air, surface, and beacon 2. Air, surface, and beam 3. Detection and acquisition 4. High scan and low scan 1-64. What mode of the AN/SPQ-9B radar uses the pulse-doppler radar? 1. Surface 2. Detection 3. Air 4. Beam 1-65. The AN/SPQ-9B radar is found on board which of the following ship types? 1. SPRUANCE class destroyers 2. TICONDEROGA class cruisers 3. SAN ANTONIO class amphibious ships 4. All of the above 1-66. The Mk 23 TAS integrates various subsystems. Which of the following subsystems is NOT part of that integration? 1. Two-dimensional air-search radar 2. Long-range threat evaluation console 3. IFF subsystem 4. Display subsystem 1-67. What is the primary weapon controlled by the Mk 91 missile fire control system? 1. SEASPARROW missile 2. Mk 45 gun 3. HARPOON missile 4. Close-in weapon system 1-68. The Mk 91 missile fire control system uses which of the following consoles? 1. Firing officer console only 2. Signal data processor console only 3. Radar set console only 4. Advanced display system console 1-69. Which of the following radar systems is NOT part of the Mk 91 fire control system? 1. Mk 95 illuminator 2. Mk 23 target acquisition system 3. Mk 157 discriminator 4. AN/SPQ-9 series radar 1-70. Which of the following ship classes uses the Combined Antenna System? 1. TICONDEROGA class cruisers 2. LHA class amphibious ships 3. PERRY class frigates 4. SEAWOLF class submarines 1-71. In reference to figure 2-8, where is the STIR antenna located on a PERRY class frigate? 1. On the forward bullnose 2. On the aftship O-2 level 3. On the forecastle main deck 4. On the midship O-2 level 1-72. The Mk 15 Phalanx Close-In Weapon System has two primary modes of operation. What are they? 1. Air ready and manual 2. Recommend fire and manual 3. Remote control and manual 4. Automatic and manual 1-73. What is the principal air threat to U. S. naval surface ships? 1. Anti-ship cruise missiles 2. Low, slow, or hovering aircraft 3. Low altitude enemy aircraft 1-74. Which of the following is NOT a capability of the MK 31 RAM system? 1. Fire and forget missile 2. No self-destruct mode 3. Slow reaction time 4. To destroy anti-ship cruise missiles 1-75. The MK 44 Missile Round Pack has what total number of cells? 1. 16 2. 21 3. 24 4. 27 6

ASSIGNMENT 2 2-1. The Ship Self-Defense System (SSDS) integrates and coordinates what equipment on board non-AEGIS class ships? 1. Existing sensors and weapons 2. Special computer programs 3. Operator stations 4. All of the above 2-2. SSDS is the integration element of the entire combat system program, including all weapons and sensors. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of SSDS? 1. To improve reaction time from detect to engagement in less than 60 seconds 2. To improve the performance of weapons/sensors beyond normal stand-alone capability. 3. To improve the integration and coordination of all weapons and sensors in order to provide quick reaction combat capability 4. To improve the capability to engage multiple targets and quick response against anti-ship cruise missiles 2-3. Which of the following systems is an SSDS interface on a non-AEGIS class ship? 1. AN/SPS-49 air search radar 2. AN/SPG-62 illuminator 3. AN/SPQ-9B fire control radar 4. AN/SPY-1 multi-dimensional radar 2-4. Which of the following systems uses heat or light as a source for target detection? 1. Fire control radar 2. Close-in weapon system 3. Optronic system 4. Air search radar 2-5. The Thermal Imaging Sensor System (TISS) provides surface and air target data to combat systems via an electro-optical system. TISS also has which of the following capabilities? 1. Good night detection and identification 2. Mine detection 3. Both 1and 2 above 4. Aid to navigation 2-6. Which of the following sensors is/are a part of upcoming developments in radar? 1. High frequency surface wave 2. Multi-function radar 3. V olume search radar 4. All of the above 2-7. What is the definition of a warning status of yellow? 1. Hostilities probable 2. Hostilities imminent 3. Hostilities detected 4. Hostilities displayed 2-8. The Tactical Action Officer (TAO) is responsible for which of the following actions in the absence of the commanding officer? 1. The proper employment of the ship’s weapons systems 2. The proper navigation of the ship through friendly waters 3. The proper employment of the ship’s auxiliary systems 4. The proper use of consoles in the combat information center 2-9. During a Detect-to-Engage scenario, what is the first equipment to detect and identify a threat? 1. A wide band ESM receiver 2. A fire control radar 3. An IFF interrogator 4. A narrow band navigation radar 7 Textbook Assignment: “Fire Control Systems,” chapter 2, pages 2-9 through 2-16 and “Radar Safety,” chapter 3, pages 3-1 through 3-17.

2-10. The ship’s 2-D air search radar, with the help of the ESM receiver, helps to localize the incoming threat. What tactical information does localizing the threat give you? 1. An accurate bearing only 2. An accurate range and bearing 3. An accurate range only 4. An accurate range, bearing, and altitude 2-11. What feature of the ship’s 3-D radar leads you to believe that the threat consists of only one aircraft? 1. The bearing resolution of the pulse-compressed radar 2. The elevation resolution of the pulse-compressed radar 3. The resolution of the ESM sensors 4. The range resolution of the pulse-compressed radar 2-12. According to the Rules of Engagement (ROE) in effect, you have determined hostile intent based on a target’s action. At this point you should prepare to defend your ship against what type of attack? 1. Probable 2. Conceivable 3. Comprehensible 4. Imminent 2-13. After you inform the Anti-Air Warfare Commander of a target’s hostile intent, he places your ship in Air Warning Red. What does Air Warning Red mean? 1. Attack is imminent 2. Attack is probable 3. Attack is on hold 4. Attack is in progress 2-14. Once a target is close enough to be detected by your weapons system, the fire control computer uses the target’s course and speed to compute where your missile will engage the target. What is the term used for this place of engagement? 1. Predicted engagement envelope 2. Predicted intercept envelope 3. Predicted intercept point 4. Predicted engagement point 2-15. What verbal command authorizes the launching of a missile at a hostile target? 1. “Batteries release” 2. “Batteries charged” 3. “Fire all batteries” 4. “Fire all weapons” 2-16. From which of the following sources do you confirm that the target has been destroyed or neutralized? 1. Ship’s lookouts 2. Ship’s sensors 3. Anti-air warfare commander 4. ESM equipment only 2-17. Which of the following functions is part of the modern fire control problem? 1. Informing the warfare commander of the threat 2. Confirming target resolution 3. Making a weapon selection 4. Making equipment ready for tracking 2-18. What is the ultimate goal of all subsystem components in solving the fire control problem? 1. To quickly locate the target 2. To neutralize the target 3. To detect the target 4. To select the right weapon 2-19. There are three phases involved in target detection by a weapon system. What is the second phase? 1. Surveillance and detection 2. Interpret the behavior of the target 3. Measuring or localizing the target’s position 4. Classifying the target 2-20. Which phase uses either reflected energy or received energy emitted from the target to detect a target? 1. First 2. Second 3. Third 4. Fourth 8

2-21. In tracking a target, a collection of motors and position-sensing devices called a servo system helps to successfully engage a target. The operation of such a system is based on what inherent concept? 1. Error reduction 2. Feedback 3. Zeroing 4. Rate reduction 2-22. What is the definition of “system error”? 1. The difference between where the sensor is located and where the target is going 2. The difference between where the target is pointing and where the target is actually going 3. The difference between where the sensor is pointing and where the sensor is located 4. The difference between where the sensor is pointing and where the target is actually located 2-23. What devices are used in servo systems to detect the position of and to control the movement of power drives? 1. Gun mounts 2. Missile launchers 3. Optical encoder 4. Radar antennas 2-24. The effective engagement and neutralization of a target requires that a destructive mechanism, such as a missile warhead, be delivered to the vicinity of the target. Which of the following factors should be considered in the design of an effective destructive mechanism? 1. Propulsion system 2. Fuzing mechanism 3. Warhead design 4. All of the above 2-25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Harpoon Missile? 1. Anti-ship cruise missile 2. Land attack 3. All weather missile 4. Over-the-horizon range 2-26. What Harpoon missile feature contains a fuel tank for JP-10 fuel? 1. Control 2. Warhead 3. Sustainer 4. Guidance 2-27. The Harpoon Booster separates from the missile approximately how many kyds down range? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 2-28. Which of the following Harpoon firing salvos uses one platform while shooting at least 2 missiles to overwhelm targets defenses? 1. Ripple 2. STOT 3. DTOT 4. BTOT 2-29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Tomahawk Missile? 1. Low altitude 2. Land attack 3. Short range 4. Conventional warhead 2-30. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Tomahawk Weapon System (TWS)? 1. AUR 2. ABL 3. VLS 4. APS 2-31. What variant of Tomahawk dispenses bomblets? 1. TLAM-A 2. TLAM-B 3. TLAM-C 4. TLAM-D 2-32. What is the purpose of your command’s bombarding you with safety slogans, rules, and procedures? 1. To keep you alive and well 2. To improve your morale 3. To keep you busy 4. To give you something to do 9

2-33. Being safety conscious means to approach every job from a safety point of view. 1. True 2. False 2-34. Radio Frequency Radiation (RFR) is one of the hazards associated with radar operation. Which of the following areas around a radar antenna should you consider to be an RFR hazard? 1. The front 2. The sides 3. The rear 4. All of the above 2-35. If you suspect any injury or excessive exposure to radiation which of the following individuals should you contact? 1. Your leading petty officer 2. Your ship’s doctor or corpsman 3. Your division chief 4. All of the above 2-36. Whenever you work around radar equipment, you should observe which of the following safety precautions? 1. Do not inspect feedhorns when they are emitting RFR 2. Observe all RADHAZ warning signs 3. Ensure that radiation hazard warning signs are available and used 4. All of the above 2-37. Scientific studies have shown that people cannot easily sense electromagnetic radiation (EMR). What EMR frequency range presents a hazard to humans? 1. 10 Hz to 300 Hz 2. 10 kHz to 300 GHz 3. 10 THz to 300 THz 4. 1000 Hz to 3000 Hz 2-38. Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) is one category of radiation hazards. What are the other two categories? 1. HERP and HERD 2. HERF and HERR 3. HERD and HEED 4. HERP and HERF 2-39. What type of devices can actuate prematurely in ordnance systems due to RFR? 1. Electro-optical devices 2. Electromagnetic devices 3. Electroexplosive devices 4. Electromechanical devices 2-40. When are ordnance systems most susceptible to RFR energy? 1. During loading only 2. During unloading only 3. During assembly 4. During disassembly only 2-41. The radiation hazard HERO can be broken down into three classifications. In which of the following conditions is an item considered to be HERO unsafe? 1. The item is being assembled 2. The item contains 3. The item is sufficiently shielded from 4. The item, through testing, has been proven to be adversely affected by 2-42. Which of the following publications will list your ship’s specific requirements for HERO safety? 1. Naval Sea Systems Command instruction 2. EMCON bill 3. NA VSEA OP 3565 4. NA V AIR 16-1-529 2-43. Who is responsible for the implementation of HERO requirements? 1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. Safety officer 4. All hands 2-44. Which of the following publications lists specific guidance about fueling operations and radar on your ship? 1. EXCON bill 2. NA VSEA OP 3565 3. NA VELEX volume I 10

2-45. According to table 3-1 in the text, what is the maximum permissible exposure time limit for a fixed-beam hazard with the AN/SPY-1 radar transmitter? 1. 0.023 minute 2. 0.23 minute 3. 3.2 minutes 4. 6 minutes 2-46. Which of the following changes in frequency increases the likelihood of biological damage from RFR? 1. A decrease in frequency only 2. An increase in frequency only 3. Either an increase or decrease in frequency 2-47. A navigational radar with a frequency of 900 MHz may cause what type of damage, if any, to body tissues? 1. Minor damage 2. Damage to surface skin 3. Deep tissue damage 4. None 2-48. Which of the following parts of the electromagnetic spectrum can cause damage to the transparent lens of the eye? 1. Ultraviolet 2. Infrared 3. Radio frequency 4. All of the above 2-49. Permanent injury to the testicles can happen because of which of the following hazard conditions? 1. An extremely high dosage of RF 2. High exposure of RF for many years 3. Both 1 and 2 above 2-50. Shipboard radar has cutout switches for personnel safety due to radiation. Which of the following is a function of cutout switches? 1. They turn off the transmitter for certain bearings and elevations 2. They turn off the transmitter for certain bearings only 3. They turn off the transmitter for certain elevations only 2-51. The specific cutout zones for your radar are identified in which of the following publications? 1. NA VSEA OP 3565 2. Operational publications 3. DOD instruction 6055.11 4. Bureau of Medicine and Surgery publications 2-52. Which of the following is a symptom of a mild burn? 1. Slow healing injury 2. Odor of scorched skin 3. A tingling sensation 4. Hair standing up 2-53. A common source of RFR burns is crane hooks. Which of the following factors is the basis of these burns? 1. The location of the crane 2. Induced RFR voltage 3. The location of transmitters 4. The location of wire ropes 2-54. The careful use of frequency can reduce the RFR voltages induced into crane structures and rigging. Which of the following is a better approach for the prevention of RFR induced voltage injuries to personnel? 1. The use of RFR high voltage insulator links 2. The use of RFR personnel protectors 3. The use of RFR insulated gloves 4. The use of RFR cable 2-55. Which of the following is considered the greatest hazard associated with working aloft? 1. Dropping of objects 2. Asphyxiation from stack gasses 3. Electrical shock 4. Falling 2-56. Which of the following is a danger associated with static charges encountered by personnel working aloft? 1. RFR burns to the skin 2. High-voltage shock 3. Surprise of the shock may cause a fall 4. Electrical arcing 11

2-57. Because of the associated dangers, no one may go aloft without the permission of which of the following personnel? 1. Chief petty officer 2. Officer of the deck 3. Division officer 4. Department head 2-58. Which of the following documents must be properly completed before permission is given to go aloft? 1. Working check sheet 2. Working aloft check sheet 3. Under way check off list 4. In port work list 2-59. When your ship is underway, who must grant permission to go aloft? 1. Commanding officer 2. Safety officer 3. Officer of the deck 4. Master chief of the command 2-60. How often should the announcement “DO NOT ROTATE OR RADIATE ANY ELECTRICAL OR ELECTRONIC EQUIPMENT WHILE PERSONNEL ARE WORKING ALOFT” be made over the 1MC? 1. Every 15 minutes 2. Every 20 minutes 3. Every 30 minutes 4. Every 45 minutes 2-61. What document gives you specific instructions for your ship with regard to man aloft procedures? 1. Under way check off list 2. Master work list 3. Ship’s Organization and Regulation Manual 4. Man Aloft Bill 2-62. Which of the following is NOT a general guideline for going aloft? 1. Stop work if the ship rolls more than 10 degrees 2. Make sure the climber sleeve is attached to a safety harness when the wind speed is in excess of 30 knots 3. Read all posted safety placards before you begin work 4. Wear personal protective gear for hazards other than RFR 2-63. After working aloft, FC3 Smith leaves some rags and tools unsecured and then goes to lunch. You are his supervisor and learn that the ship’s helo will be flying right after lunch. What, if anything, should you be concerned about, knowing the above facts? 1. FOD 2. Rescheduling maintenance 3. Nothing 2-64. For your safety when going aloft you should wear an approved parachute type harness. Which of the following components is/are associated with this type of safety harness? 1. Safety lanyard 2. Tending line 3. Double lock snap hooks 4. All of the above 2-65. A “Danger High V oltage” warning sign should be posted at the entrance to compartments that contain which of the following equipment? 1. Equipment with shock hazards in excess of 30 volts 2. Equipment with shock hazards in excess of 500 volts 3. Equipment with exposed conductors with shock hazards in excess of 500 volts 4. Equipment with exposed conductors with shock hazards less than 30 volts 2-66. In which of the following locations should you post stack gas warning signs? 1. Near the bottom of each access ladder leading aloft 2. At the top of each ladder leading aloft 3. At the base of the antenna pedestal 4. All of the above 2-67. Your radar equipment has a 4-inch red line circling it. What type of sign should be posted for your equipment? 1. Type 1 2. Type 2 3. Type 3 4. Type 4 12

2-68. A RADHAZ safety sign is mounted on a hook insulator and warns personnel not to touch the wire/rigging above the insulator. What type of RADHAZ safety sign is it? 1. Type 1 2. Type 2 3. Type 3 4. Type 4 2-69. Which of the following types of fuel is NOT considered to have a HERF problem? 1. A VGAS 2. MOGAS 3. JP-5 2-70. The type 6 RADHAZ sign advises of hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance. Which of the following publications gives guidance on type 6 signs? 1. EMCON bill 2. NA VSEA OP 3565 3. SORM 4. NA VSEA OP 4134 2-71. Which of the following instructions is NOT a proper instruction concerning a CRT? 1. Discharge the high voltage from the anode connector before removing the CRT from its yoke 2. Wear safety glasses and gloves when lifting the CRT by its neck 3. Always place CRT face down on a thick piece of felt, rubber, or smooth cloth 4. Avoid scratching or striking the surface 2-72. On a ship, each electronics space is supposed to have one radioactive disposal spill kit. Which of the following items should be in the spill kit? 1. A container, rubber gloves, and forceps 2. Masking tape, gauze pads, and a container of water 3. Respirator, radioactive material stickers, and procedures 4. All of the above 2-73. If an approved HEPA filtered vacuum is NOT available for cleaning up the broken pieces of a CRT, what is the approved alternate method for clean up? 1. Use forceps and a wet cloth with a firm back and forth motion 2. Use forceps and dry cloth with a careful patting motion 3. Use forceps and dry cloth with a circular motion 4. Use forceps and a wet cloth, making one stroke at a time 2-74. If you sustain a wound from a sharp radioactive object whom should you immediately notify? 1. Safety officer 2. Commanding officer 3. Medical officer 4. Officer of the deck 2-75. X-ray emissions can penetrate human tissue and cause both temporary and permanent damage. Which of the following types of equipment are sources of x-rays? 1. Magnetrons 2. Klystrons 3. CRTs 4. All of the above 13