AVIATION MAINTENANCE RATINGS (AMR)

By analyzing the typical duties and responsi- bilities listed above, you will find that they can be grouped into three broad objectives. 1. Operate with maximum efficiency and safety 2. Operate with minimum expense and waste 3. Operate free from interruption and difficulty While these are the primary objectives of a work center supervisor, it is important for you to keep in mind that it also affords you the opportunity to gain practical experience toward eventual promotion to Chief Petty Officer. Q1. What is the primary concern of a work center supervisor? Q2. The typical duties and responsibilities of the supervisor can be grouped into broad objectives. List these three objectives. OPERATING WITH MAXIMUM EFFICIENCY AND SAFETY The operational efficiency of a work center is dependent to a large extent upon how conveniently the work spaces and equipment are arranged. As equipment in your work center becomes obsolete, new equipment and new models are phased into the inventory. With this occurrence, efficiency naturally increases. This happens even in a poorly arranged work center, but the full work center potential may not be realized. It may not be economically feasible to make drastic changes in the work center spaces and equipment. However, if drastic changes result in improved use of equipment, personnel safety, and in generally improved working conditions, then the change should be made. The supervisor should make an assessment of the existing work center layout to ensure the most efficient arrangement possible. The supervisor, by virtue of the position, has authority over other individuals. The supervisor tells them what to do, when to do it, and if necessary, how to do it. This authority alone is not enough to gain maximum effectiveness performance from the crew. A good supervisor must know the limitations and capabilities of subordinates to obtain the most efficient performance from them. The capabilities of the crew should be exploited. If at all possible, a well qualified person should be assigned to each job. Individuals that are less qualified but who are ready for advanced on-the-job training should be assigned to assist. A good supervisor anticipates the eventual loss of experienced personnel through transfers, separations, etc. These things can be offset by establishing an effective and continuing training program. Use the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program, OPNAVINST 4790.2, manual as a guideline for this program. In addition to raising the skill level of the work center, the training program ensures that personnel otherwise qualified will be prepared for the next Navy-wide advancement examination. A work center safety program must be organized and administered if the work center is to function efficiently. Current Navy directives and local policies are quite specific as to the establishment of safety training programs. Accurate, complete, and up-to-date records are the primary factors in the efficient operation of a work center. This includes records of usage data, work accomplishments, and personnel qualifications. The most efficient record keeper is one who has enough information without having records and files bulging with useless and outdated materials. As supervisor, you should schedule your workload in such a way that planned absences of key workers do not interrupt the daily routine. When scheduling the workload, keep in mind the skill level required for various tasks, and assign jobs to individuals in such a way that the work may still progress if any worker is unexpectedly absent. The discussion thus far indicates that an efficient and safe work center is one in which the supervisor practices balanced supervision. Balanced supervision means applying sufficient attention to each phase of the supervisor’s responsibilities. Do not emphasize production at the expense of safety or training. Also, do not become so concerned with the human element that production is neglected. Keep paperwork current and updated to prevent having to spend long periods catching up at the expense of other important interests. Always strive to place the proper emphasis on each phase of responsibility to promote work center efficiency and harmony. Q3. How does work center efficiency naturally increase? Q4. How can an effective supervisor offset the loss of experienced personnel? 6-2

OPERATING WITH MINIMUM EXPENSE AND WASTE LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Describe the supervisor's responsibility to operate with minimum expense and waste. As a work center supervisor, you don’t actually handle money, but you still must be aware of expenses. Remember that not only will such things as a misdirected effort, broken tool, wasted time, wasted material, and injuries actually add to your expenses, they also cut down on efficiency. You have the responsibility for properly ordering and accounting for spare parts and material. Impress upon your personnel the need for thrift in the use of these materials. Train your less experienced personnel to become cost-conscious without sacrificing efficiency. OPERATING FREE FROM INTERRUPTION AND DIFFICULTY LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Describe the effects of judicious delegation of authorty. The success of this objective depends largely upon the extent to which the work center, files, test equipment and tools are maintained. Also, the skill level and training of assigned personnel must be considered in meeting this objective. Accurate tracking of test equipment requiring calibration, ensuring tools are in safe working condition, and up-to-date files and publications are also important factors. They contribute to an efficient job completion with minimal interruption or difficulty. Smooth functioning of the work center may be further enhanced if you delegate authority to other responsible petty officers. Delegation of authority does not relieve you, as supervisor, of the overall responsibility for work accomplishment. It is primarily a means of relieving you of details. If you become too involved with details, you can lose you effectiveness as a supervisor. If your work center can run smoothly and efficiently under normal conditions without your personal directions and efforts, (for a reasonable period of time) your delegation of authority to other members of the crew has been successful. Q5. Which of the three broad objectives are affected by wasted materials? Q6. Describe the primary purpose of delegation of authority. 6-3 PLANNING WORK CENTER ARRANGEMENT LEARNING OBJECTIVES: Identify the two types of maintenance that concern the supervisor. Describe the purpose of the daily maintenance meeting. It is entirely possible that you may never have the opportunity to plan or assist in planning a work center in a new facility. In almost every case, the supervisor takes charge of an existing functional work center. If your unit is moved to a new base or facility, you are usually assigned to spaces already equipped or laid out for your specific needs. In either case, as the supervisor, you should evaluate the work center’s layout. This reevaluation of the work center’s layout should include researching applicable allowance lists to determine if the work center equipment allowances have been updated or changed in any way. If changes have been made and the equipment is not available, you should initiate efforts to procure it immediately. There is no use in relocating work center equipment if there are lighting, wiring, ventilation, or plumbing changes to be made if improved replacement models are authorized and available. Purpose of the Work Center A basic consideration in planning a work center layout is the purpose of the work center. When more than one working space is available, the supervisor must decide which space is best suited for a particular job. For example, if two spaces are identical in size, one may be completely unacceptable for performing hydraulic sample patch tests, yet may be perfectly suited for a drill press, vise, and workbench. The general function of the work center must be considered in the allocation of space and equipment. The ideal arrangement contains enough space to have workbenches, special tools, parts and tool stowage space, technical publication stowage, and ample space for the workers. Since this is not always possible, especially aboard ship, the supervisor must decide which of these is most important and what can be sacrificed. It may be decided that all of the toolboxes and special tools should be located in a central toolroom. At the intermediate level, the supervisor may simply have to decide which work centers are to be combined. However, the decision to combine different maintenance functions should be based on

safety, economy, functional compatibility, and convenience. Arrangement The arrangement of the furnishings should be made on the basis of use rather that appearance. Moving shop-installed equipment into an out-of-the-way corner may improve the appearance of the space but greatly reduces the efficiency of the personnel using the equipment. It may also create a safety hazard. A good rule to follow is to locate the equipment where it can be safely used by the greatest number of authorized persons with minimum effort in the least amount of time. Work tables and benches should be positioned with respect to fixed equipment so that the equipment most often used is most quickly and easily reached. Electrical and compressed air outlets should be readily available to workbenches. Needless delays are caused by having to rig unnecessarily long connections from poorly located outlets. You should give special considerations to the installation of special lighting, such as explosionproof, vaporproof, or interference-free lights, near workbenches where specific or intricate work is to be performed. Another special consideration is that of ventilation. All work spaces should have adequate ventilation under all conditions that are expected to exist in that work space. The use of paint in various colors to emphasize portions of intricate machinery for safety and reflective purposes is known as dynamic painting. Painting in this category should be kept in an efficient state for maximum effectiveness; however, this type of paint should not be used for normal building maintenance. The work center layout plan should have a provision for an information or bulletin board. Safety posters, maintenance posters, instructions, notices, plan of the day (POD), and such other information as appropriate should be placed on this board. This board should be located in a prominent place in the work center, preferably near the entrance where everyone assigned must pass at sometime during the day. Material on the bulletin board should be kept current, expired notices removed promptly, the current POD posted early, and safety posters rotated periodically. If the same material is presented in the same format day after day, personnel begin to ignore the board. A new arrangement will arouse curiosity and interest. Scheduling and Assignment of Workload Your most important concern as a supervisor is the assignment and accomplishment of the scheduled and unscheduled workload. Scheduled maintenance can be defined as maintenance that is required by hours, calendar periods (days or weeks), and starts. This type of maintenance is always anticipated and planned. By tracking flight or operating hours, maintenance control knows exactly when a particular aircraft is due for a phase inspection. It is also easy to determine when an aircraft or piece of equipment is due for a 28-day inspection. Unscheduled maintenance is defined as maintenance that occurs on aircraft or equipment other than scheduled. For example, an aircraft develops a hydraulic fluid leak on preflight, or perhaps while performing scheduled maintenance on an aircraft engine, a worker discovers a cracked or chaffed line. The repair or replacement of that line is unscheduled maintenance. As the work center supervisor, you should attempt to coordinate the installation of technical directives (TDs) and correct minor discrepancies to coincide with scheduled maintenance. You may not be authorized to wait until the next scheduled maintenance period for the installation of a TD; the assigned category (priority) determines the maximum allowable time period for compliance with the directive. A directive classified IMMEDIATE ACTION may be issued with instructions to be completed "prior to further use of equipment" or "prior to next flight"; a directive classified ROUTINE ACTION must be accomplished within 18 months of the date of issue. The supervisors objective is the satisfactory completion of assigned tasks in a reasonable amount of time, using available personnel and materials as efficiently as possible. To achieve this objective, the supervisor must become skilled in estimating the amount of time required for each task and the number ofworkers required. To be able to estimate effectively, you, as the supervisor, must be familiar with the task and know the capabilities of your personnel. You must realize the importance of assigning qualified and unqualified persons to the same job, when possible. Allow for planned interruptions, and yet do not operate on so tight a schedule that minor, unplanned 6-4

interruptions completely disrupt the maintenance effort. Q7. Describe scheduled and unscheduled maintenance. Estimating Time and Personnel Requirements Estimating times for completion of maintenance tasks will be one of the supervisors responsibilities. The quality and quantity of personnel assigned to perform these tasks directly affect the time required for completion. Other items that affect time are the type and complexity of maintenance, the availability and condition of materials, work center tools and equipment, and working conditions or job site (in-shop, cold flight deck, etc.). Probably the most important single aid in estimating time and personnel requirements for maintenance tasks is a JOB PLAN. Within an office, a work center, or on the line, job planning is one of the most important functions of the supervisor. The person who allows an organization to run haphazardly, who never thinks ahead, who is never ready for an emergency or extra workload, and who does not delegate work or trust subordinates is not a good supervisor. 6-5 Proper planning saves time, reduces cost, and makes the work easier, safer, and more pleasant for everyone. Proper planning can eliminate friction and confusion, as well as make better use of in-port periods for tasks that cannot be performed underway; it also frees the supervisor from petty details. Planning expedites the work, eliminates "bottlenecks," and makes the supervisor's job easier. The following hints can help you as a supervisor. In planning a job, use the BIG SIX—WHAT, WHY, WHERE, HOW, WHO, and WHEN. 1. WHAT is the task? What does it involve and what special tools may be required? 2. WHY is the work to be done? (This helps to establish priorities.) 3. WHERE can the job be done? (In-shop, hanger bay, etc.) 4. HOW is the job done? (Electrical or air requirements, etc.) 5. WHO is affected? (Are there other work centers involved? Who is the best qualified?) 6. WHEN is the job to be started and what are the time constraints? It is not necessary to have an answer to all of these questions; however, the more you can answer, the better plan you will have. As supervisor, start each new shift by checking over the work to be done; plan for maximum use of manpower, equipment, and material. Also, ensure that you attend the maintenance meeting with other work center supervisors. Periodically during the shift, make checks to ensure that work is progressing as planned. Daily Maintenance Meeting The daily maintenance meeting is one of the best tools for ensuring a smooth flow of information about maintenance between shifts and other supervisors. This meeting allows all the supervisors within your department or division to brief the maintenance chief on the status of equipment, components, or aircraft that currently have ongoing work or are scheduled to have maintenance performed. It also allows supervisors to coordinate time frames for sharing certain facilities, equipment, or electrical power requirements. In addition, these maintenance meetings may bring to the attention of the maintenance chief items of material that may be difficult to obtain. It may identify certain document numbers that require "hand massaging" by the supply chief. Q8. What is the most effective tool for ensuring a smooth flow of information regarding maintenance between shifts, other work centers, and maintenance control? Personnel Work Assignments Rotate work assignments so that each person in you work center can develop skills in all phases of maintenance. Personnel in lower paygrades should be encouraged to get involved in many different types of maintenance. A worker who understands a system or aircraft will be a better troubleshooter. Additionally, when you rotate work assignments and encourage a wide range of maintenance skills, the work becomes more interesting to the worker. More interest, more quality! If one highly skilled mechanic performs all of the work of a certain type, the supervisor and the work center would suffer if that technician were to transfer, be assigned TAD, or even take a period of well earned leave; this is another reason for rotating work assignments. Assign less experienced workers to work with the skilled mechanics so they can become

proficient at a particular skill. This also permits each person to broaden his/her knowledge. Allowing for Planned Interruptions During an average workday, personnel will need to leave their work center for various personal reasons; this may easily interrupt the scheduled workload. Some reasons can be anticipated and some cannot. Among those that can be anticipated are training lectures, inspections, immunization schedules, rating examinations, meals, watches, and other military duties. Before assigning a task, the supervisor should determine what delays can be anticipated. It may be possible to arrange assignments so that work interruptions are held to a minimum. It is much easier for the same technician to complete a task that he started than for another to pick up where the first worker left off. If interruptions cannot be avoided, the supervisor should allow for these predictable delays when estimating completion times. QUALITY ASSURANCE LEARNING OBJECTIVE: State the purpose and concept of Quality Assurance. When you progress up the ladder of responsibility in aviation maintenance, you become more involved in quality assurance (QA). You may be assigned as a QA representative or a collateral duty inspector. Therefore, you must become quality conscious. The quality assurance (QA) division determines deficiencies, analyzes discrepancy trends, prescribes inspection procedures, and determines the quality of maintenance accomplished. The division also provides follow-up action and functional guidance to stimulate QA at the departmental level. NOTE: At the time of publication of this training manual, the NAMP Policy Committee has determined that Naval Aviation Maintenance Program Standard Operating Procedures (NAMPSOP) will take the place of Maintenance Instructions (MIs) throughout naval aviation. MIs are mentioned frequently throughout this chapter as they are still referred to in the NAMP. The next update of the NAMP may reflect the use of NAMPSOP rather than local MIs. Refer to OPNAV NOTICE 4790 for further information regarding NAMPSOP. CONCEPTS OF QUALITY ASSURANCE The QA concept is fundamentally the prevention of the occurrence of defects. This includes all events from the start of maintenance operations until their completion. Quality is the responsibility of all maintenance personnel. Achievement of quality assurance depends on prevention, knowledge and special skills. Prevention of the occurrence of defects relies on the principle of eliminating maintenance failures before they happen. This principle extends to safety of personnel, maintenance of equipment, and virtually every aspect of the total maintenance effort. Prevention is concerned with regulating events rather than being regulated by them. Knowledge is obtained from factual information. This knowledge is acquired through the proper use of data collection and analysis programs. The maintenance data collection system provides maintenance managers limitless quantities of factual information. Correct use of this information gives management the knowledge needed to achieve maximum readiness of aircraft and weapons systems. Special skills, normally not possessed by production personnel, are required by a staff oftrained personnel for the analysis of data and supervision of QA. The terms inspection, quality assurance, and audit (as used in this context) have distinct meanings and should be used accordingly. The following definitions are provided to clarify the differences in these terms. Inspection is the examination (including testing) of supplies and services, including raw material, documents, data, components, and assemblies. Inspection is done to determine if the supplies and services conform to technical requirements. Quality assurance is a planned and systematic pattern of actions necessary to provide confidence that the product will perform satisfactorily in service. QA is also the monitoring/analyzing of data to verify the validity of these actions. An audit (as it applies to QA) is a periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records. QA provides an efficient method for gathering, analyzing and maintaining information on the quality characteristics of products, on the source and nature of 6-6

defects, and their impact on the current operation. It permits decisions to be based on facts rather than intuition or memory. It provides comparative data that will be useful long after the details of the particular times or events have been forgotten. QA requires both authority and assumption of responsibility for action. A properly functioning QA points out problem areas to maintenance managers so they can act to accomplish the following: Improve the quality, uniformity, and reliability of the total maintenance effort. Improve the work environment, tools, and equipment used in the performance of maintenance. Eliminate unnecessary man-hour and dollar expenditures. Improve the training, work habits, and procedures of maintenance personnel. Increase the quality and value of reports and correspondence originated by the maintenance activity. Distribute technical information more effectively. Establish realistic material and equipment requirements in support of the maintenance effort. Support the Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program. Support the Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Prevention and Reporting Program. QA serves both management and production equally. Management is served when QA monitors the complete maintenance effort of the department and furnishes the factual feedback of discrepancies and deficiencies. In addition, it acts to improve the quality, reliability, and safety of maintenance. Production is served by having the benefit of collateral duty inspectors who are formally trained in inspection procedures; it is also served by receiving technical assistance in resolving production problems. The introduction of QA to the maintenance function does not relieve production personnel of the basic responsibility for quality work; instead, that responsibility is increased by adding accountability. This accountability is the essence of QA. RESPONSIBILITIES FOR QUALITY OF MAINTENANCE The commanding officer is responsible for the inspection and quality of material within a command and the full cooperation of all hands to meet this responsibility. The responsibility for establishing a successful program to attain high standards of quality workmanship cannot be discharged by merely creating a QA division within a maintenance organization. To operate effectively, this division requires the full support of everyone in the organization. It is not the instruments, instructions, and other facilities for inspection that determine the success or failure in achieving high standards of quality; it is the frame of mind of all personnel. Quality maintenance is the objective. The supervisor must know that high quality work is vital to the effective operation of any maintenance organization. To achieve this high quality work, each person must know not only a set of specification limits, but also the purpose for those limits. The person with the most direct concern for quality workmanship is the production supervisor. This concern stems from the supervisor’s responsibility for the proper professional performance of assigned personnel. A production supervisor is responsible for the assignment of a collateral duty inspector (CDI) at the time work is assigned. This procedure allows the inspector to conduct the progressive inspection required so the inspector is not then confronted with a job already completed, functionally tested, and buttoned up. The completion of production work is not a function of the QA division. Production personnel in the added role of inspector cannot certify inspection of their own work. Direct liaison between the QA division and production divisions is a necessity and must be energetically pursued. Although the QA officer is responsible to the aircraft maintenance officer (AMO) for the overall quality of maintenance within the department, division officers and work center supervisors are responsible for ensuring that required inspections are conducted and that high quality workmanship is attained. Q9. What is the purpose of the quality assurance division? Q10. The prevention of the occurence of defects relies on what principle? 6-7

Q11. What are the three factors that ensure the achievement of quality assurance? Q12. State the definition of a Q/A audit. Q13. What does the frame of mind of all personnel assigned to a department determine? Q14. When must the production supervisor assign a collateral duty inspector to a task? QUALITY ASSURANCE DIVISION RESPONSIBILITIES AND ORGANIZATION LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Describe the quality assurance division’s responsibilities and its organization. The quality assurance responsibilities assigned to the QA division include the following: Maintain the central technical publications library for the department, including technical directives (TDs). Control classified technical publications for the department. Ensure that each division or branch receives all publications applicable to its respective work areas and that these are kept current and complete. Establish qualification requirements for quality assurance representatives (QARs), collateral duty quality assurance representatives (CDQARs), and collateral duty inspectors (CDIs). Review the qualifications of personnel nominated for these positions, and endorse these nominations to the department head. Periodically accompany CDIs during scheduled and unscheduled maintenance tasks to observe their proficiency. Ensure that all work guides, checklists, check sheets, maintenance requirements cards, etc., used to define or control maintenance operations are complete and current before they are issued to crews or individuals. Review all engineering investigation (EI) requests, quality deficiency reports (QDRs), technical publications deficiency reports (TPDRs), hazardous material reports (HMRs), hazard reports (HRs), and aircraft discrepancy reports (ADRs) to ensure that they are accurate, clear, concise, and comprehensive before mailing. Monitor inspections of precision measuring equipment (PME) to ensure compliance with calibration intervals and safety instructions. Perform inspections of all maintenance equipment and facilities to ensure compliance with fire and safety regulations; that satisfactory environmental conditions exist; that equipment operators and drivers are properly trained, qualified, and licensed; and that equipment is maintained in a safe operating condition. Provide a continuous training program in techniques and procedures pertaining to the conduct of inspections. When directed or required, provide a technical task force to study trouble areas and submit recommendations for corrective action. Use information from the maintenance data reports (MDRs) and NALCOMIS reports to develop discrepancy trends, and to identify failure areas or other maintenance problems. Review source documents and periodic inspection records, and note recurring discrepancies that require special actions. 6-8 Maintain liaison with contractors via the contracting officer’s representative (COR), Naval Aviation Engineering Services Unit (NAESU), Naval Aviation Depot Operations Center (NAVAV- NDEPOTOPSCEN), and other available field technical services. Establish and maintain liaison with other maintenance and rework activities to obtain information on ways to improve maintenance techniques, quality of workmanship, and QA procedures. Obtain and use appropriate inspection equipment, such as lights, borescopes, mirrors, magnifying glasses, fluorescent inspection kits, tensiometers, pressure gauges, and carbon monoxide testers. Ensure that production personnel have such equipment available, in operating condition, calibrated, if applicable, and in use. Ensure that established standard procedures are observed for conducting scheduled and unscheduled inspections, ground tests and bench checks of components, including engines. Periodically (at a minimum, once a quarter) accompany check crews or plane captains during inspections. Check the performance of their work to ensure that the desired quality level is obtained. Ensure check pilots and aircrew members are briefed before the post maintenance functional check flight (FCF) so the purpose and objective of the flight are clearly understood. After completion of the FCF,

conduct a debrief with the check pilot, aircrew members, a maintenance control representative, and applicable work center representatives for compliance with objectives outlined on the FCF checklist, and to clarify discrepancies noted. The completed check flight checklists are retained in the aircraft maintenance files for a minimum of 6 months, or one phase cycle, whichever is greater. Ensure the configuration of aircraft, aeronautical components, and support equipment (SE) is such that all essential modifications have been incorporated. Ensure an inspection is conducted on all equipment received for use, returned for repair, or held awaiting repair to verify that its material condition, identification, packaging, preservation, and configuration are satisfactory; and, when applicable, that shelf-life limits are not exceeded. Review all incoming technical publications and directives to determine their application to the maintenance department. Prepare or assist in the preparation of maintenance instructions to ensure that QA requirements are specified (until Naval Aviation Maintenance Program Standard Operating Procedures, NAMPSOP, Volume V, of OPNAVINST 4790.2 is issued). Maintain current assignments of personnel qualified for specific QA responsibilities. Activities using Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System (NALCOMIS) should refer to the User’s Manual for specific procedures. Be responsible for the effective monitoring of the Enhanced Comprehensive Asset Management System (ECAMS). Be responsible for effective monitoring of hazardous material and hazardous waste procedures within the aircraft maintenance department. The QA division is organized with a small group of highly skilled personnel. These permanently assigned personnel, under the QA officer, are responsible for conducting and managing the QA effort of the department. The maintenance personnel assigned to the QA division are known as QARs. To obtain more efficient use of the information collected by the aviation Maintenance Data System (MDS) and to increase the scope of QA for commands still operating under VIDS, a qualified data analyst is assigned to the QA/A division. The primary duties of the data analyst or NALCOMIS system administrator are discussed briefly in Chapter 1 and are outlined specifically in OPNAVINST 4790.2. The number of personnel assigned to the QA division varies among activities, depending on the size of the unit and number of work shifts. When activities with four or less aircraft assigned or small OMDs elect to organize a QA division, the QA officer and the QA supervisor will be permanently assigned. Usually, in a small OMD under a one work center concept, qualified personnel are designated as CDQARs to carry out the QA verification functions. Q15. Q16. Q17. Q18. At a minimum, how often must plane captains have their qualifications monitored by Q/A? Why must a QAR brief the check pilots and aircrew prior to a functional check flight (FCF)? What division is responsible for reviewing all incoming technical publications and directives to determine their application to the maintenance department? In relation to the organization of a quality assurance division, what determines the number of assigned personnel? QUALITY ASSURANCE REPRESENTATIVES LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Describe the functions and qualifications of QARs, CDQARs, and CDIs. The need for quality control requires that only highly skilled maintenance personnel be designated as QA representatives/inspectors. QARs and CDIs must be highly qualified personnel with the ability to ensure quality of maintenance within their technical areas. Under this concept, the personnel in the production divisions are ultimately responsible for the quality of work performed in the department. The QA division monitors the production and ensures that high quality workmanship is accomplished by maintenance personnel and that specifications and quality standards are met. QA is concerned with the completeness and adequacy of inspections, and emphasis is placed on the thoroughness of the inspection rather than the number of units inspected. Quality Assurance Representatives Functions The nucleus of the QA division is a group of QARs. These permanently assigned representatives 6-9

are, in most activities, supplemented by designated CDIs. The QARs perform the following functions: Review incoming technical publications and directives to determine their application to the maintenance department. Assist in the certification of production personnel. Participate as members of technical task forces to investigate trouble areas and recommend corrective actions. Ensure QA objectives and requirements are defined during MI preparation (until completely under the NAMPSOP). Review qualifications of personnel nominated to become CDIs or CDQARs, and provide recommendations as appropriate. Investigate Hazard Reports (HRs), as defined in OPNAVINST 3750.6 (series), applicable to the unit that are received from other activities. Assist in the preparation of NAMDRP reports. Review all report entries for adequacy and correctness before distribution. Provide technical assistance to CDIs and production personnel. Periodically accompany CDIs on assigned inspections and evaluate their performance. Review MDRs, NALCOMIS reports, Maintenance Action Forms (MAFs), NAMDRP reports, and HRs to determine discrepancy trends and specific problem areas in areas of responsibility. Upon completion of tasks that require certification by QARs, conduct final inspections. Monitor the calibration or certification status of equipment, tools, and personnel used in each work center. Coordinate with the analyst in the development of discrepancy trends and such charts and graphs that are necessary to depict quality performance. 6-10 Maintain liaison with contractors via the COR NAESU, NAVAVNMAINTOFF, cognizant field activities (CFAs), and other available field technical services. Establish and maintain liaison with other maintenance and rework activities to obtain information for improving maintenance techniques, quality of workmanship, and QA procedures. Develop checklists for auditing work centers, specific maintenance programs, and processes that require monitoring by QA. If flight control malfunctions occur, comply with the applicable type/model/series conditional maintenance requirements cards. Perform QA inspections, ensuring each inspection includes an examination of the work area for sources of potential FOD. Ensure contractor and field maintenance teams are briefed about the FOD Prevention Program requirements and reporting procedures. Quality Assurance Representative Qualifications All personnel considered for selection as a QAR should possess the following qualifications: Senior in grade and experience. This means a petty officer (E-6 or above) with a well-rounded maintenance background. Unusual circumstances may temporarily require the use of other than E-6 or above personnel. Under such circumstances, the most experienced personnel available, as determined by the AMO, may be temporarily designated as a QAR. Fully developed skills and experience related to the technical-fields under their cognizance. The ability to research, read, and interpret drawings, technical manuals, and directives. The ability to write with clarity and technical accuracy. Stability and excellence in performance. The motivation and personal desire to develop greater knowledge of his or her technical specialty. An observant, alert, and inquiring nature. The ability to work with others. Billet descriptions are prepared for QA division personnel to ensure that all QA functions and responsibilities, covered in the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), are assigned. COLLATERAL DUTY QUALITY ASSURANCE REPRESENTATIVES When CDQARs are assigned to work centers or production divisions, they function in the same capacity as QARs and must meet the same minimum qualification requirements as their QA division counterparts. When CDQARs are assigned to work centers or production divisions because of temporary shortages of skills, and these shortages have not been

alleviated within 90 days, a letter must be submitted to the aircraft controlling custodian (ACC), through the chain of command, advising of the personnel problems, action taken, and intent to continue the assignments. ACCs will take action to authorize activities to continue or to curtail the assignment. The letter will contain name, rate, Navy enlisted classification (NEC), and functional area. Permanent CDQARs may be assigned to organizational maintenance activities that have minimal ordnance delivery in their assigned mission, and where manning the armament billet would not be justified. An organizational activity may also designate a permanent aircrew personal protective/survival equipment CDQAR and an egress/environmental systems CDQAR when the activity’s aircraft are not equipped with ejection seats. Permanent CDQARs also may be designated to supplement multiple work shifts or detachments, provided QA division billets are fully manned. Permanent CDQARs may also be assigned when the activity maintains four or less aircraft and is organized according to guidelines set forth in the NAMP. COLLATERAL DUTY INSPECTORS The CDIs assigned to the production or maintenance training unit (MTU) work centers inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections during all maintenance actions performed by their respective work centers. They are responsible to the QA officer when performing these functions. CDIs spot check all work in progress. This requires them to be familiar with the provisions and responsibilities of the programs that QA manages and monitors. The QA division establishes minimum qualifications for personnel selected for CDI. Division officers are responsible for ensuring that sufficient qualified personnel are nominated for CDI to comply with QA inspections required during all maintenance actions. Due to the importance and responsibility of duties performed by CDIs, division officers and work center supervisors must carefully screen all candidates for these assignments. CDIs must demonstrate their knowledge and experience on the particular type of equipment by successfully passing a locally prepared written test administered by the QA division. In addition, a locally prepared oral or practical examination may be administered. When a CDI is transferred from a production work center, his or her designation as a CDI for that work center remains valid for only as long as his or her qualifications are current, as judged by the cognizant division officer. NOTE: A CDI will NOT inspect his or her own work and sign as inspector. QUALITY ASSURANCE REPRESENTATIVE TRAINING The QA officer ensures that personnel assigned to perform QA functions receive continuous training in inspecting, testing, and quality control methods specifically applicable to their area of assignment. The QA officer also ensures that QARs receive cross training to perform those QA functions not in their assigned area. This training should include local training courses, on-the-job training (OJT), rotation of assignments, personnel qualifications standards (PQS), and formal schools. According to OPNAVINST 4790.2, QARs should attend a Fleet Aviation Specialized Operational Training Group Detachment QA course. Division officers are responsible for establishing and maintaining training programs for production personnel involved with QA functions. This responsibility includes training in troubleshooting, testing, and inspection techniques; ensuring that operations requiring certified operators are accomplished; and that steps are taken to qualify and certify affected personnel. QARs, CDQARs, and CDIs must be designated in writing by the AMO. The only deviation authorized allows the officer in charge (OIC) of a detachment to designate QA personnel provided (1) the deployment period is more than 90 days, and (2) all procedures and requirements for designating QA personnel are accomplished by the detachment. See figure 6-1 for a sample of a Quality Assurance Representative/ Inspector Recommendation/Designation form. ISSUE AND CONTROL OF QUALITY ASSURANCE STAMPS QA stamps may be used in place of a signature. They are required in an intermediate maintenance activity/aircraft intermediate maintenance department (IMA/AIMD), but are optional at organizational-level maintenance. In an IMA/AIMD, all QARs, CDQARs, and CDIs receive QA stamps. At the organizational level, QA stamps are to be used by QARs and CDQARs only. These open-purchased, numbered, impression stamps, which 6-11

Figure 6-1.—Quality Assurance Representative/Inspector Recommendation/Designation (OPNAV 4790/12). 6-12

identify the inspector, are used in place of signatures to certify completion of inspections on maintenance documents and in place of initials where use of initials is specifically authorized. The QA division closely controls these stamps. Once a QA stamp is turned in by an inspector, either due to transfer or loss of qualifications, it may not be reassigned within a period of 3 months. Q19. Q20. Q21. Q22. Q23. Q24. Who has the responsibility to review MDRs, NALCOMIS reports, and VIDS/MAFS to determine discrepancy trends and specific problem areas? Under normal circumstances, what paygrade is usually assigned as a QAR? How long may a CDQAR be assigned to a work center without having to notify the aircraft controlling custodian? When may a CDI inspect his own work and sign as inspector? When a deployment period is more than 90 days and all requirements for assigning QA personnel have been met by the detachment, who may designate QA personnel? What is used to annotate an inspection on a VIDS/MAF in place of a signature at an AIMD? QUALITY ASSURANCE INSPECTIONS LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Identify the types of quality assurance inspections. QA inspections are essential elements of an effective QA program. To comply with assigned responsibilities, QA personnel perform the following QA inspections: Mandatory QA inspections specified in maintenance instruction manuals (MIMs), TDs, and local MIs. Those inspections required to be conducted by QA personnel during and/or upon the completion of a maintenance action. QA maintenance requirements cards (MRCs) provided for all maintenance tasks that, if improperly performed, could cause equipment failure or jeopardize the safety of personnel. The "QA" appearing on MRCs signifies that a QA function is required. Local commands must determine and designate, in writing, by annotating the master and the work center decks, whether a QAR, CDQAR, or CDI performs the QA functions listed in the MRCs. QA inspections are performed during or after task performance. If the proper performance of a task cannot be determined after the task is completed, a QA inspection is required while the task is being performed. Work cannot proceed past the inspection point indicated on the task MRC without the approval of the inspector. For these inspections, the notation "QA Required" appears on the MRC containing the task. If the proper performance of a task can be determined by a visual inspection after the task was completed, a QA inspection is required after task completion. Each work center sets up procedures to ensure that the QA inspection requirements are complied with during all maintenance evolutions. With these procedures developed, inspections normally fall into one of the three following inspection areas. RECEIVING OR SCREENING INSPEC- TIONS. These inspections apply to material, components, parts, equipment, logs and records, and documents. CDIs normally conduct these inspections to determine the condition of material, proper identification, maintenance requirements, disposition, and accuracy of accompanying records and documents. IN-PROCESS INSPECTIONS. These inspections are specific QA functions that are required during the performance of maintenance requirements and actions when satisfactory task performance cannot be determined after the task has been completed. When designated, these inspections include witnessing application of torque, functional testing, adjusting, assembling, servicing, installation, and similar tasks. FINAL INSPECTIONS. These inspections comprise specific QA functions performed following the completion of a task or series of tasks. QA inspection of work areas following task accomplishment by several different personnel is an example of a final inspection. In-process and Final Inspections CDIs normally conduct these inspections; however, QARs and CDQARs must conduct in-process and final inspections of all tasks that require the aircraft to have a functional check flight (FCF) in an O-level maintenance activity. QARs and CDQARs also must perform inspections of maintenance tasks involving egress systems, personnel parachutes, and flotation devices when the affected mechanism or function of that equipment is not reinspected or 6-13

functionally tested before flight. Aircraft maintenance officers determine which additional maintenance tasks require QAR or CDQAR level in-process and final inspections. Only those personnel designated as QARs, CDQARs, and CDIs are authorized to sign as inspector for QA inspection requirements. While not all QA inspections conducted during the various phases of maintenance require a signature, all specified QA inspections are conducted, witnessed, and/or verified by designated QA personnel. Quality Assurance Inspection Sign-offs The QA inspector who actually performs the inspection of the standards of the work signs the "INSPECTED BY" block on all VIDS/MAFs. The sign-off on documents that do not involve an actual inspection (for example, a control document for a phase inspection) is a certification that all QA functions associated with the inspection have been performed and that the designated QA inspectors received and accepted all necessary documentation. In activities using NALCOMIS, refer to the NALCOMIS User’s Manual for specific details and procedures related to QA inspection sign-offs. NOTE: Do not be tempted by operational tempo or commitment to sign off any maintenance task without physically inspecting the job. In-flight Maintenance Sign-offs In the absence of designated QA personnel during in-flight maintenance, the senior aircrew maintenance person is authorized to sign as inspector. He or she inspects the work performed from a technical standpoint to ensure that sound maintenance procedures were followed and that areas where maintenance was performed are free of foreign objects. If the discrepancy involves safety of flight, a QAR inspects the repairs upon return to home base. This is in addition to the inspection already performed by the in-flight personnel. Transient Maintenance Sign-offs In the absence of designated QA expertise during transient maintenance, the pilot in command is authorized to either sign as inspector or designate a qualified member of the aircrew to function in this capacity. The pilot or person designated inspects the work performed from a technical standpoint, ensures that sound maintenance procedures were followed, and that the areas where maintenance was performed are free from foreign objects. If the discrepancy involves safety of flight, a QAR reinspects the repairs upon return to home base. Q25. Q26. What person or activity decides if a CDI, CDQAR, or QAR is to perform inspections required by "QA " annotated on an MRC? During a maintenance evolution, inspections normally fall into three categories. What are the three categories? Q27. Q28. QAR and CDQAR are required to conduct in-process and final inspections of all maintenance tasks that require what actions? When must a QAR reinspect in-flight maintenance sign-offs? QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAMS LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Describe the programs that are managed and monitored by quality assurance. The QA division manages or monitors many different types of programs. Until Volume V of the NAMP, OPNAVINST 4790.2 (NAMPSOP), is distributed, local MIS should be prepared by your activity for each program QUALITY ASSURANCE MANAGEMENT Currently local maintenance instructions contain procedures for implementing management programs that contain information, techniques, local policy procedures, and methods to manage each program. Soon NAMPSOP will replace these MIs. The programs managed by QA are covered in the following paragraphs. Quality Assurance Audits Audits are essential elements of an effective QA program. Audits provide an evaluation of performance throughout the department and serve as an orderly method of identifying, investigating, and correcting deficiencies. They also evaluate various maintenance tasks and procedures. Audits monitor those specific maintenance programs assigned to QA for monitoring. Audits fall into two categories—work center audits and special audits. 6-14

THE WORK CENTER AUDIT.—QA conducts these audits quarterly to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center. As a minimum, QA evaluates the following items: Personnel and skills Technical publications Compliance with NAMP programs and MIs (or NAMPSOP) Adherence to directives, procedures, inspections, and applicable end-to-end testing Adequacy and availability of written process, test, and inspection procedures Availability, calibration status, and proper use of test and measuring devices Accuracy and proper use of the Maintenance Data System (MDS) Certification of personnel performing special processes, such as nondestructive inspection (NDI) and welding Designation of plane captains, if applicable Licensing of personnel for taxi, turnup, and operation of SE Handling, packaging, protection, and storage of aeronautical material Cleanliness and condition of working spaces Compliance with fire and safety regulations Configuration of aircraft, components, and SE Accuracy of equipment logs and records Material condition of aircraft and SE Validation of VIDS boards and VIDS operating procedures if operating using VIDS. If operating NALCOMIS OMA, review and verify newly initiated. MAFs by using the work center workload report; if NALCOMIS IMA, validation of current job status Compliance with the FOD prevention program Industrial Radiation Safety Program SPECIAL AUDITS.—In addition to scheduled work center audits, QA conducts special audits to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures, and programs. These audits provide a systematic, coordinated method of investigating known deficiencies, evaluating the quality of workmanship, and determining the adequacy of and adherence to technical publications and instructions. QA uses special audits to monitor maintenance programs and processes specifically assigned to QA for monitoring. In addition, QA conducts special audits of periodic inspections, testing, and servicing of aircraft by organizational maintenance activities. The QA officer normally directs special audits. Quality assurance develops audit forms with checklists for each work center. The QA division also prepares an audit MI and includes the audit checklists as enclosures to the MI. Upon completion of an audit, QA reviews the findings with the work centers involved. QA submits a report of the findings, with recommendations when required, to the AMO with a copy to the cognizant division(s). Records of audits are maintained for 1 year. Follow-up procedures ensure that discrepancies found during a QA audit are resolved in a timely fashion. Maintenance Department or Division Safety The QA division is assigned the overall responsibility for the maintenance department safety. The intent of this program is to assist in the coordination of the total safety effort. The maintenance department safety program helps to identify and eliminate hazards. Effectiveness and safety result when properly trained personnel use properly designed equipment and follow procedures under competent supervision. It is an all hands effort. Any safety effort must address aviation and industrial safety. OPNAVINST 3750.6 contains the instructions for maintenance personnel participation in command aviation safety programs. It also contains the instructions for investigating and reporting naval aviation hazards that are not reportable under the NAMP. Even though OPNAVINST 3750.6 calls for specific reports, you still have to follow reporting procedures called for in the NAMP. Other references you may use in relation to maintenance department safety are as follows: Navy Occupational Safety and Health Programs for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19, which contains safety precautions to be followed while aboard ship. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U. S. Navy, OPNAVINST 3120.32, which contains the standards for organizing a ship/station/squadron’s 6-15

safety department and information on billet descriptions and responsibilities. NAVAIROSH Requirements for the Shore Establishment, NAVAIR A1-NAOSH-SAF-000/ P-5100-1, which contains safety precautions to be followed while ashore. QA’s responsibilities to the maintenance department safety program are as follows: Disseminate safety posters and literature. Report all hazards, mishaps, and unsafe practices in the department. Conduct safety meetings within the department, at least monthly. Coordinate aspects of safety with the aviation safety officer. Participate in the activity’s safety surveys and stand downs. When a report is required by OPNAVINST 3750.6, the QA division collects and provides maintenance and material data necessary for preparation of required reports. Q29. What programs are managed by quality assurance? Q30. What are the two categories of audits performed by Q/A? Q31. Upon completion of an audit, the findings are forwarded to the AMO, with a copy going where? Q32. How long are past audits maintained by Q/A? Q33. In addition to reporting naval aviation hazards in accordance with OPNAVINST 3750.6, you still must follow reporting procedures called for in what manual? Q34. With regard to maintenance department safety, what does the Q/A division have a responsibility to do at least monthly? The Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program (NAMDRP) NAMDRP is the method for reporting hazardous deficiencies in material, publications, substandard workmanship, and improper QA procedures. The QA division manages the program and assists the various work centers in determining if one or more of these reports are needed for a maintenance problem or occurrence within the activity. They are also responsible to review all HMRs, EI requests, QDRs, and TPDRs to ensure they are accurate, clear, concise, and comprehensive. The work center supervisor provides assistance to the QA representative with information needed to complete the message request. The QA division also initiates and maintains a report log and assigns a report control number (RCN) to each NAMDRP report. RCNs are assigned sequentially throughout the calendar year, regardless of the type of report. The RCN is composed of 12 elements as follows: Element (1) is the Service Designator code of the originating activity. Refer to the OPNAVINST 4790.2 for Service Designator codes. Elements (2) through (6) are the Unit Identification Code (UIC) of the originating activity, followed by a dash (-). Elements (7) and (8) are a two-character identification of the calendar year, followed by a dash (-). Elements (9) through (12) are the locally assigned "control numbers." These numbers are sequential, beginning with 0001 each calendar year. The various reports required under the NAMDRP are as follows: Hazardous Material Report (HMR) Engineering Investigation (EI) request Quality Deficiency Report (QDR) Technical Publication Deficiency Report (TPDR) Aircraft Discrepancy Report (ADR) The aviation safety officer, with assistance from QA, reviews all correspondence concerning aircraft, ground, flight, flight-related, and explosive mishaps. All hands have a responsibility to be alert for safety-related defects or discrepancies, which is the primary reason for submitting each report. If a report meets the criteria for an HMR and warrants an EI Request, a Category (CAT) I QDR, or TPDR, is sent as a dual message report. Exceptions to the NAMDRP and its reporting procedures are as follows: 6-16

Changes or corrections to the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) manuals or tactical manuals are reported by using procedures found in OPNAVINST 3710.7 and NAVAIRINST 3710.10 using OPNAV 3710/6. Deficiencies resulting from incorrect preservation, packaging, marking and/or handling (when reported by supply activities) or deficiencies in shipment that are the result of overage, shortage, expired shelf life, or misidentified material are reported according to instructions found in NAVSUPINST 4440.179. Locally procured material found to be deficient by the procuring activity is reported according to instructions contained in NAVSUPINST 4440.189. Deficiencies in letter-type instructions and notices are reported by letter to the sponsor. Discrepancies in OPNAVINST 4790.2 are reported by naval letter to Naval Aviation Maintenance Office (NAMO) (Code 46), via the chain of command. Incorrect source, maintenance, and recover- ability (SM&R) codes are reported according to NAVAIRINST 4423.11. Recommendations for improvements in procedures that do not result from incorrect information contained in publications are reported by letter to Naval Air Technical Services Facility (NAVAIRTECH- SERVFAC). Explosive incidents, dangerous defects, and malfunctions or failures involving explosive systems, launch devices, and armament weapons support equipment are reported under OPNAVINST 8600.2 as an Explosive Mishap Report (EMR) or a Conventional Ordnance Deficiency Report (CODR). These reports still fall under the NAMDRP for accounting and monitoring purposes. A brief description of each of the programs of the NAMDRP is contained in the following paragraphs. HAZARDOUS MATERIAL REPORT.—This report provides a standard method for reporting material deficiencies that, if not corrected, could result in death or injury to personnel, or damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities. Report such incidents regardless of how or when the discrepant condition was detected. Submit an HMR priority precedence message within 24 hours of discovery under one or more of the following conditions: Malfunction or failure of a component that, if not corrected, could result in death or injury to personnel, or damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities. In case of a naval aircraft mishap, as defined in OPNAVINST 3750.6, submit required reports according to that instruction. The submission of reports required by OPNAVINST 3750.6 does not eliminate any of the requirements for submission of reports required by the NAMP. A configuration deficiency discovered in aeronautical equipment (aircraft, SE, components, etc.) that constitutes a safety hazard. An urgent action or assistance required and a corrective action completed at an early date because of an operational requirement. A system malfunction or failure may occur because of a part design, which might allow the part to be installed improperly. A potential or experienced in-flight or on-the-ground loss of aircraft parts in which maintenance or material factors are involved. Use the term things falling off aircraft (TFOA) when referring to such incidents. TFOA includes incidents generally categorized in other areas, such as a foreign object damaged engine, which sheds parts, or a helicopter rotor blade pocket failure. ENGINEERING INVESTIGATION. —EIs apply to all aircraft and weapons systems, their subsystems, equipment, components, related SE, special tools, fluids, and materials used in operating the equipment. The three types of EIs are (1) disassembly and inspection, (2) material analysis, and (3) engineering assistance. Submit EI requests under one or more of the following conditions: Safety is involved. This includes EI requests prepared in conjunction with aircraft mishaps, and HMRs when it is evident that an unsafe condition exists. Additional technical or engineering information is required to complete an aircraft mishap investigation. Aircraft readiness is seriously impaired due to poor material reliability (including SE). A component is rejected through the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) after authorized repairs are attempted and exhausted at the O and I levels of maintenance. 6-17

When environmental issues force material or process changes that conflict with existing publications or TDs. When directed by higher authority. Submit the EI request by routine precedence message within 5 working days after discovery of the deficiency unless combined with the HMR, in which case the combined report is to follow HMR reporting criteria. The supporting supply department and the CFA supply department are information addressees on the EI message. QUALITY DEFICIENCY REPORT. —This report provides maintenance activities with a method for reporting deficiencies in new or newly reworked material. Unless the materials are under warranty, failures must have occurred at zero operating time, during initial installation, operation, test, check, turnup, or first flight. It differs from the EI program in that it reports on possible deficiencies in quality assurance during the manufacturing or rework process. The goal is to improve the quality of work done by naval aviation depots (NAVAVNDEPOTs), contractors, and subcontractors returning reworked material to supply stock. There are two types of QDRs. CAT I. A quality deficiency which will, or may, affect safety of personnel, impair the combat efficiency of an individual or organization, or jeopardize mission accomplishment. CAT II. All quality deficiencies that are assessed to have significant and widespread material or human resource impact and do not affect the conditions of a CAT I. CAT I QDRs are reported by routine precedence message within 1 working day after the discovery of the deficiency unless combined with an HMR. A combined HMR CAT I QDR follows HMR reporting guidelines. CAT II QDRs are submitted on an SF 368 to the CFA within 5 working days of the discovered deficiency. TECHNICAL PUBLICATION DEFICIENCY REPORT.—This report applies when a technical publication deficiency is detected that, if not corrected, could result in death or injury to personnel, or damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities. The action addressees for the message report is NAVAIRTECHSERVFAC and the CFA for the aircraft weapons system or item being reported. If the CFA for the weapons systems or material cannot be determined, the action addressee is NAVAIR- TECHSERVFAC. This report is a CAT I TPDR and must be submitted within 24 hours of the discovered deficiency. A CAT II TPDR is a simplified procedure for reporting technical publication deficiencies. Publication deficiencies include technical errors, wrong measurement values, incorrect use of support equipment, wrong sequence of adjustments, part number errors or omissions, and microfilm deficiencies, such as poor film quality. Technical publications include MRCs, checklists, Work Unit Code (WUC) manuals, MIMs, illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs), and other technical manuals. The TPDR program does not apply when deficiencies in instructions or notices are reported. Submit improvement procedures that do not result from incorrect information contained in the publication but are recommendations by letter to NAVAIR- TECHSERVFAC. AIRCRAFT DISCREPANCY REPORT. —The ADR is a method for reporting defects discovered in newly manufactured, modified, or reworked aircraft that require immediate attention to ensure acceptable standards of quality in aircraft maintenance and rework procedures. The cognizant defense plant representative office, administrative contracting office, or NAVAVNDEPOT will enclose sufficient copies of the ADR form (Standard Form 368) with envelopes preaddressed, in each aircraft logbook for delivery with the aircraft. Additionally, they ensure that a copy of the previous reporting custodian’s work request is furnished to the ferry pilot and functional wing. Naval Aviation Depot Operations Center (NAVAVNDEPOTOPSCEN) is the ADR screening point on aircraft commercially reworked under the procuring contract office. An acceptance inspection is performed and a functional check flight flown as soon as possible after the aircraft is delivered and prior to maintenance (other than required to complete the acceptance inspection) or further flight. Only those discrepancies noted by the ferry pilot or crew and those found during the acceptance inspection and check flight are reported. In reporting the initial acceptance of an aircraft, use "Initial Acceptance Inspection of Aircraft" as the subject of the Standard Form 368. Submit this initial 6-18

report within 5 working days of the acceptance check flight. A supplemental report, if needed, must be The division of the individual originating the submitted not later than 30 days after completion of report retains a copy of the SE Misuse/Abuse report. the check flight. The report is sent to the organization that has Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) reporting Support Equipment Misuse/Abuse SE Misuse/Abuse forms can be submitted by anyone witnessing misuse or abuse (fig. 6-2). responsibility for the SE. A copy of the report is sent to the CO of the command to which the offender is attached and/or the CO of the command that held custody of the item where the misuse or abuse occurred for appropriate action. As a minimum, the QA division Figure 6-2.—SE Misuse/Abuse Form (OPNAV 4790/108). 6-19

of the command receiving the report conducts an investigation. Also, QA performs an analysis to provide appropriate recommendations for corrective action. Aviation Gas Free Engineering (AVGFE) The purpose of the AVGFE program is to ensure a safe environment when aeronautical fuel systems are worked on. NAVAIR 01-1A-35 outlines requirements for the AVGFE program. Technicians certified under the AVGFE program must be qualified QARs or CDQARs and have graduated from an approved AVGFE program course. O-level activities normally provide their own AVGFE technicians; however, those activities with less than three gas free engineering (GFE) requirements in a 6-month period may request the services of the supporting I-level AVGFE technician. Q35. Q36. Q37. Q38. Q39. Q40. Q41. Q42. Q33. Q44. What is the Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program? What division assists the aviation safety officer in reviewing all correspondence about aircraft, ground, flight, or flight-related mishaps and explosive mishaps? Who has the responsibility to be alert for safety related defects or discrepancies? OPNAVINST 3710.7 contains procedures to report discrepancies in what type of publication? If a system failure or malfunction occurs because of a part design, which could allow improper installation of the part, an HMR priority precedence message must be submitted within what time frame? What term should be used in conjunction with an HMR when an aircraft part is lost in flight? What are the three types of engineering investigations (Els)? What type of report provides activities with a means of reporting deficiencies in new or newly reworked material? How long does the accepting activity have to submit a supplemental ADR? Where is the original misuse/abuse report sent? QUALITY ASSURANCE MONITORING The QA division monitoring includes the continuous collection and distribution to cognizant personnel of all messages, letters, instructions, and other information concerning the programs or processes being monitored. The QA division does not manage any of these programs and processes. However, they are responsible for overall surveillance of these programs and processes to identify problems and to verify compliance. Audits are one of the tools used in monitoring these programs and processes. QA gives continuous attention to program performance. They prepare checklists that describe the specific functions needed to effectively monitor each assigned program and process. These checklists are the same for O- and I-level maintenance with a few exceptions. QA monitors the programs and processes listed below: FOD Fuel surveillance Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) Aviators’ breathing oxygen (ABO) Hydraulic contamination control SE Operator Training/Licensing and SE Planned Maintenance Systems (PMS) SE testing Calibration Nondestructive inspection (NDI) Tool Control Program Corrosion prevention and control Plane captain qualification Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) Egress system checkout Explosives Handling Personnel Qualification and Certification Program Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) Control/ Prevention Program Miniature/microminiature (2M) Laser hazard control 6-20

Aeronautical Equipment Welder Certification and Recertification Vibration analysis Aircraft battle damage repair (ABDR) Enhanced Comprehensive Asset Management System (ECAMS) Under the NAMP, local MIs must show the responsibilities of personnel concerning these programs and processes. The QA division should use the MI with the checklists to monitor each of these programs and processes. These programs and processes are covered in detail in the NAMP. Some of these programs and processes that are included in the NAMPSOP do not require additional instructions or maintenance instructions (MIs). As new instructions are included in the NAMPSOP, existing MIS will be discarded. Refer to the NAMP for further information on NAMPSOP. SUMMARY Throughout this chapter, we have discussed the numerous responsibilities of the work center supervisor as well as many of the programs and responsibilities of the QA division. This is by no means all inclusive. To ensure mission accomplish- ment, both positions require dedication, diligence, and, most of all, experience. So when you become the work center supervisor, remember you are ultimately responsible for the work performed by your personnel, so take the initiative to stay involved in every aspect. When you become a quality assurance representative, remember that you are there to assist, train, and monitor, not just to be a policeman. 6-21

ANSWERS TO REVIEW QUESTIONS A1. Seeing that the job is done correctly, safely, and efficiently with no waste of materials. A2. Operate with maximum efficiency and safety, operate with minimum waste an expense, and operate free from interruption and difficulty. A3. Update equipment as old models become obsolete. A4. Through an effective and continuing training program. A5 Operating with minimum expense and waste. A6. A means of relieving the work center supervisor of the details of a task. A7. A8. A9. A10. A11. Al2. A13. A14. A15. A16 A17. A18. A19. A20. A21. A22. A23. A24. A25. A26. A27. Functional check flights. A28. When the discrepancy involves safety of flight. Scheduled maintenance is maintenance required by hours, calender periods (days or weeks), and starts. Unscheduled maintenance is maintenance that occurs on aircraft other than scheduled. The daily maintenance meeting. Determine deficiencies, analyze discrepancy trends, prescribe inspection procedures, and determine the quality of maintenance. Eliminating maintenance failures before they happen. Prevention, knowledge, and special skills. A periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records. The success or failure in achieving high standards of quality. At the time the task is assigned. Quarterly. To ensure the purpose and objective of the check flight are clearly understood. Quality assurance division. The size of the unit and the number of work shifts. Quality assurance representatives. Normally, an E-6 or above is assigned as a QAR. 90 days. Never. The officer in charge. A Q/A stamp. Local commands make the decision and annotate the master and work center MRC decks. Receiving or screening inspection, in-process inspection, and final inspection. 6-22

A29. a. QA audits. b. CTPL. c. Department/division safety. d. NAMDRP. e. SE misuse/abuse. f. Aviation gas free engineering (AVGFE). A30. Work center audits and special audits. A31. The cognizant division. A32. One year. A33. NAMP, OPNAVINST 4790.2. A34. Conduct maintenance department safety meetings. A35. The NAMDRP is a method for reporting hazardous deficiencies in material, publications, substandard workmanship, and improper Q/A procedures. A36 Quality assurance division. A37. All Hands. A38. Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) manuals. A39. Within 24 hours of discovery. A40. TFOA (Things falling off aircraft). A41. Disassembly and inspection, material analysis, and engineering assistance. A42. Quality deficiency report (QDR). A43. Within 30 days after completion of the check flight. A44. The report is forwarded to the organization that has IMRL reporting responsibility for the item abused. 6-23

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CHAPTER 7 MAINTENANCE AND PRODUCTION CONTROL This chapter is designed to assist senior personnel in preparing for a maintenance managers position. It is not all inclusive of a maintenance or production chiefs daily tasks, but it should help you to understand some of their required functions. MAINTENANCE MANAGEMENT LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Recognize the definitions of "maintenance" and "management." Management is defined as "the efficient attainment of objectives" and maintenance is defined as "all actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability." When combined, maintenance management can be defined as "the actions necessary to retain or restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with a minimum expenditure of resources." It is the responsibility of every maintenance manager to manage resources in an efficient manner. Q1. Define the term "management." Q2. What is the definition of maintenance? Q3. Define the term "maintenance management. " MAINTENANCE CONTROL LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Identify the responsibilities of Maintenance Control. Maintenance control (M/C) is at the nucleus of the production divisions. It manages and coordinates the overall production effort to maintain squadron aircraft in a mission-capable condition. The general responsibilities of M/C include, among others, the following: Coordinates/monitors the maintenance department workload. Maintains liaison with the supporting activities and the local supply department to ensure that the squadron requirements are known and satisfied. Controls the daily workload, and assigns work priorities to the various division work center supervisors. Issues maintenance instructions (MIS), as required, to ensure adequate communication and control. Ensures that the full capability of the department is used in support of the department workload. Submits NALCOMIS or VIDS/MAF work requests to the supporting intermediate maintenance activity (IMA) for those functions beyond the capability or responsibility of the activity. Maintains technical directive (TD) control procedures for the department by initiating all TD compliance actions, ensures that required material is ordered, and schedules timely incorporation of technical directives. Reviews maintenance instructions and local maintenance requirements cards (MRCs) and ensures compliance. Conducts a monthly maintenance meeting and publishes a monthly maintenance plan. Attends the monthly maintenance meeting conducted by the supporting aircraft intermediate maintenance department/intermediate maintenance activity (AIMD/IMA). Establishes procedures for controlling and directing cannibalization. Ensures that aircraft undergo functional maintenance check flights (FCFs), as required. Maintains aircraft logs and associated equipment records (with the operations department), including weight and balance data and inventory logs. Reviews monthly Maintenance Data System (MDS) reports to ensure effective use of personnel, equipment, and facilities. Establishes procedures to monitor the Subsystem Capability and Impact Reporting (SCIR) system. Keeps the Equipment Master Roster (report number E-00) current to reflect those inventory and status changes that have occurred during the reporting period. 7-1

Plans material requirements to support the department workload. Furnishes technical advice and information to the supporting supply department about the identity and quantities of supplies and spare parts required to support the department workload. Establishes and maintains a Tool Control Program (TCP). Reviews allowance lists and the Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) for adequacy, and initiates action for revisions, as required. Ensures divisions assign qualified personnel for the completion of scheduled maintenance and inspections. Maintains close liaison with QA, particularly when maintenance changes major components. Maintenance control must inform QA when such changes occur. Validates the Not Mission Capable Supply/ Partial Mission Capable Supply (NMCS/PMCS) status listings each day. Validates work center VIDS display boards. Keeps the AMO advised of the overall workload and material situation as it affects the department. Ensures compliance with the Oil Analysis Program. Ensures compliance with the Hydraulic Contamination Program. Establishes departmental maintenance procedures for all support equipment (SE) for which the activity has IMRL reporting responsibility, and ensures such maintenance conforms with the SE Planned Maintenance System (PMS) and the Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) program. Develops an understanding of the Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System (NALCOMIS) concept and its application to management and automated data processing (ADP) requirements. Refer to the NALCOMIS User's Manual for specific details related to maintenance/material management. Provides pilots/aircrews with a record of aircraft discrepancies and corrective actions for the last 10 flights of the aircraft by maintaining the Aircraft Discrepancy Book (ADB). (Discussed later in this section and in chapter 1.) 7-2 Q4. What work center manages and coordinates the overall production effort to maintain squadron aircraft in a mission-capable condition? Q5. What division controls the daily workload and assign work priorities to the various work center supervisors? Q6. What division is responsible for publishing a monthly maintenance plan? Q7. What division is responsible for ensuring that aircraft undergo functional maintenance check frights as required? Q8. What division maintains the Aircraft Discrepancy Book? MAINTENANCE MEETINGS LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Define the purpose of the daily maintenance meeting. Without a doubt, the best tool for ensuring a smooth flow of information about maintenance between shifts and other supervisors is the daily maintenance meeting. The meeting allows all the supervisors within your department or division to brief the maintenance chief on the status of equipment, components, or aircraft that currently have ongoing work or are scheduled to have maintenance performed. It also allows maintenance control to coordinate time frames for sharing certain facilities, equipment, or electrical power requirements. In addition, these maintenance meetings may bring to the attention of the maintenance chief specific tasks that need items of material or equipment that may be difficult to obtain. It may also identify certain document numbers that require "hand massaging" by the supply chief. The maintenance chief can use the information obtained at the maintenance meetings to "plan ahead," such as obtaining support equipment that another squadron has checked out or coordinating a time period that the corrosion branch needs to paint or even reassign aircraft to the flight schedule. This allows specific maintenance to be performed on specific aircraft. Always remember that nothing happens to any aircraft without the maintenance chiefs approval. The maintenance chief releases the aircraft as "safe for flight." He/she MUST know what is happening on every aircraft at every moment. Q9. What is the primary purpose of the daily maintenance meeting?

AIRCRAFT STATUS REPORTS LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Recognize the purpose and reporting procedures of the Aircraft Material Readiness Report (AMRR). Aircraft status reports are nothing more than a compilation of information on each aircraft assigned to your squadron and its current mission capability status. Your command may construct such a report locally that provides the chain of command with consolidated information on all aircraft assigned to your organization. Also, COMNAVAIRLANT/ COMNAVAIRPAC INSTRUCTION 5442.5D, Aircraft Material Readiness Reporting (AMRR), provides specific instructions on reporting procedures for certain commands and conditions. This report enables supporting commanders to assess current aircraft material condition and rapidly identify significant aircraft support deficiencies. The content of this report includes information as follows: Number of aircraft assigned Number of aircraft in reporting status (IR) Number of aircraft full mission capable (FMC) Number of aircraft partial mission capable (PMC) Number of aircraft nonmission capable (NMC) Document numbers associated to NMC/PMC aircraft Flight hours flown since last report Sorties scheduled/sorties flown These reports are normally due for transmission by unclassified immediate message no later than a given time every day. The information may vary, depending on type aircraft, command, and deployed condition; however, specific information can be obtained in CNAL/CNAPINST 5442.5D. Q10. What instruction provides specific guidelines on procedures for reporting your squadrons readiness and material condition to supporting commanders? 7-3 AIRCRAFT DISCREPANCY BOOK (ADB) LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Identify the purpose and guidelines for maintaining the aircraft discrepancy book (ADB). Maintenance control maintains an ADB for each aircraft assigned. The ADB gives maintenance/ aircrew personnel an accurate, comprehensive, and chronological record of flights and maintenance performed on a specific aircraft by bureau number (BUNO) for at least the last 10 flights. For phase and special inspections, only the control document representing all look phase actions needs to be displayed in the ADB. The ADB must reflect the status of all outstanding maintenance requirements, as shown on the maintenance control/work center VIDS boards. The ADB for each specific BUNO must be validated for completed and outstanding VIDS/MAFs before certifying the aircraft safe for flight. NOTE: When a special inspection is completed, the control document VIDS/MAF copy 3 must be retained in the ADB for 10 flights, or until completion of the next like special inspection. Q11. When a special inspection is completed, how long must copy 3 of the controlling document be retained in the ADB? RELEASING AIRCRAFT FOR FLIGHT LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Identify the purpose of the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record. One of the most critical aspects in naval aviation is the release of an aircraft that is safe for flight. It is the responsibility of the aircraft maintenance officer or his designated representative, usually the maintenance chief, to release the aircraft by signing the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141). This record indicates that the aircraft being released for flight has had all required maintenance completed safely and is safe to fly. Specifically, the person releasing the aircraft must, as a minimum, comply with the following requirements: Review the aircraft discrepancy book (ADB) to ensure all downing discrepancies are signed off, all flight safety quality assurance inspections are complete, and a valid daily/turnaround inspection is complete.

Ensure fuel samples are taken as required by the applicable maintenance requirements cards (MRCs) or prior to the first flight of the day. Ensure the oil consumption has been reviewed for each engine/gearbox prior to every flight. Update the aircraft weight and balance and configuration for each flight. Review with the debarking pilot during hot seating operation any new discrepancies encountered during the previous flight to ensure flight safety for the next flight. Ensure the debarking pilot signs the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record verifying that the aircraft is safe for flight. The pilot in command of the aircraft is also required to review the ADB for aircraft discrepancies and corrective actions taken for at least the 10 previous flights. The pilot will sign block 11 of the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (fig. 7-1) assuming full responsibility for the safe operation of the aircraft and safety of the other individuals aboard. Additional information on the release of aircraft safe for flight and the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record can be obtained in OPNAVINST 4790.2. Q12. Who is responsible for releasing an aircraft as "safe for flight"? Q13. What is the title of OPNAV 4790/141? Q14. When an aircraft is released as safe for flight, if not specified otherwise, when must fuel samples be taken? AIRCRAFT HISTORICAL FILES LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Recognize the purpose and procedures for maintaining historical files. Aircraft historical files are records ofmaintenance and inspections performed on each aircraft in the squadrons custody. Procedures for maintaining these files vary slightly, depending on the administrative operating procedures for each squadron. Those operating under NALCOMIS have slightly different requirements than those operating with VIDS/MAFS. Both are discussed briefly; however, detailed information can be found in OPNAVINST 4790.2, Vol III. NALCOMIS activities will store the current month and two preceding months of completed MAFs on the host computer in the electronic historical data format. Once the material is offloaded, the data must be retained for a minimum of 12 months or one complete inspection cycle, whichever is greater. Historical file requirements for activities using paper VIDS/MAFS are as follows: Aircraft Inspection File. This file is maintained by bureau number(BUNO) and should be retained for one inspection cycle or 6 months, whichever is greater. Conditional inspection documents should be maintained in this file for 6 months from the date of completion. Aircraft General File. Maintained by BUNO in JCN sequence and grouped by month of Figure 7-1.—Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141). 7-4

Q15. Q16. Ql7. What publication contains detailed information on aircraft historical files? How long must aircraft inspection documents be maintained on file? A completed VIDS/MAF requesting "local manufacture of drip pans" would be maintained in what historical file? completion. This file should include all aircraft and engine-related MAFs. TD Compliance File. This file will be maintained by BUNO for a minimum of 6 months from the completed date. Miscellaneous File. This file will contain all non-BUNO MAFs and may be separated by Type Equipment code, serial number, or job control number (JCN) at the commands discretion. Aircrewman’s Flight Equipment File. Each aircrewman has a separate file containing the Aircrew Personal Equipment Record and Aircrew Systems Records. Copy 1 of completed MAFs on all maintenance performed on this equipment is retained for 6 months. SUBSYSTEM CAPABILITY AND IMPACT REPORTING (SCIR) LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Describe Subsystem Capability Impact Reporting and its purpose. Subsystem Capability and Impact Reporting reports show an equipment’s mission capability. These reports are generated from Equipment Operational Capability (EOC) codes placed on the VIDS/MAF or in NALCOMIS. SCIR provides factual information, generated at the lowest level of maintenance, as to aircraft or equipment inventory and actual subsystem performance. It provides specific aircraft or equipment mission capability and uniquely defines the categories of full mission capable, partial capable, and not mission capable for a specific type and model aircraft or equipment. EOC codes are documented when a specific system or subsystem is degraded and impacts the mission capability of that equipment or aircraft. The EOC code is a three-position code. The first position is derived from the Mission Essential Subsystem Matrices (MESM), published as an enclosure to OPNAVINST 5442.4. The last two positions are computer generated as determined by the documented Work Unit Code. Only the first position is entered on the MAF or in NALCOMIS. For more information on EOC codes and levels of aircraft or equipment mission capability, refer to OPNAVINST 5442.4. More information on SCIR reports can be obtained in Vol III of OPNAVINST 4790.2. Q18. Equipment Operational Capability (EOC) codes are used on VIDS/MAFs or in NALCOMIS to generate what reports? Q19. The Mission Essential Subsystem Matrices (MESM) is used to select what position of the EOC code that is entered on the MAF? Q20. How are the second and third positions of the EOC code determined? AIRCRAFT LOGBOOKS LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Recognize the different sections of the aircraft logbook and their purpose. The aircraft logbook is a hard-cover, loose-leaf, ring binder that contains separators and page insert forms. Since the logbook contains loose-leaf forms, it is imperative that the model and bureau number be on both sides of each page in the spaces provided to ensure positive identification when pages are removed or new continuing pages are initiated. Each form is for recording specific information about the aircraft. The maintenance control office keeps the logbook in its spaces, and an AZ normally makes the entries. As a maintenance supervisor, you should be familiar with the information required in the aircraft logbook. Each aircraft logbook has a record of rework, major repairs, and flight and operational data. Also included in the logbook, in the appropriate sections, is a record of maintenance directives affecting the aircraft, its components, and accessories. Figure 7-2 shows aircraft logbook construction and sequence. Upon acceptance of a new naval aircraft, the original accepting activity will initiate the logbook and ensure the number of flights and flight hours since new are logged, including the hours flown by the manufacturer. The aircraft logbook is maintained by the reporting or physical custodian. For aircraft supported under contractor maintenance, the onsite support center liaison officer will ensure verification of the logbook or records required. The following text provides a brief description of the sections in the aircraft logbook. Refer to 7-5

Logbook Binder (OPNAV 4790/19) Structural Life Limits Separator (OPNAV 4790/142A) Structural Life Limits (OPNAV 4790/142) Monthly Flight Summary Separator (OPNAV 4790/21) Monthly Flight Summary (OPNAV 4790/21A) Inspection Record Separator (OPNAV 4790/22) Inspection Record (OPNAV 4790/22A) Repair/Rework Record Separator (OPNAV 4790/23) Repair/Rework Record (OPNAV 4790/23A) Technical Directives Separator (OPNAV 4790/24) TDSA TD Lists Nos. 02 and 04 (Aircraft Only) Technical Directives (OPNAV 4790/24A) Miscellaneous/History Separator (OPNAV 4790/25) Miscellaneous/History (OPNAV 4790/25A) Preservation/Depreservation Record Separator (OPNAV 4790/136) Preservation/Depreservation Record (OPNAV 4790.136A)* Explosive Device Separator (OPNAV 4790/26)* Installed Explosive Device Record (OPNAV 4790/26A)* Inventory Record Separator (OPNAV 4790127) Inventory Record (OPNAV 4790/27A) Assembly Service Record (OPNAV 4790/106A)* Equipment History Record (EHR) Card (OPNAV 4790/113)* Schedule Removal Component Card (OPNAV 4790/28A)* NOTE ASR, EHR, and SRC cards are placed in the order they are listed in the PMIC. ALSS Record Separator (OPNAV 4790/157)* Parachute Record (OPNAV 4790/101)* Seat Survival Kit Record (OPNAV 4790/137)* Aircrew Systems Record (OPNAV 4790/138)* Supplemental Records Separator (OPNAV 4790/134)* Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (OPNAV 4790/29)* *If applicable on aircraft without ejection seats. Figure 7-2.—Aircraft Logbook construction and sequence. 7-6

OPNAVINST 4790.2 for additional information and documentation requirements for each section. STRUCTURAL LIFE LIMITS, OPNAV 4790/142 This form (fig. 7-3) in the aircraft logbook is generated by the squadron and is used to monitor structural life limited components designated for depot replacement that do not require scheduled removal component (SRC) or assembly service record (ASR) documentation. In addition, this form provides a means for documenting basic life limitations, such as maximum flight hours, catapults, arrestments, and landings. These items must be properly managed to ensure safety and structural integrity throughout the service life of the aircraft. Aircraft structural life limitations are specified in the periodic maintenance information cards (PMICs). MONTHLY FLIGHT SUMMARY, OPNAV 4790/2lA This form (fig. 7-4) is designed to permit the monthly compilation of significant flight operational data throughout the service life of an aircraft. Reporting custodians are required to log all flight hours monthly in chronological order. INSPECTION RECORD, OPNAV 4790/22A This form (fig. 7-5) is used in the logbook and the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR). It provides a means of recording all scheduled and conditional inspections performed on an aircraft during each period and on equipment for which an AESR is required. Accurate inspection records prevent instances of wasted effort because of improper entries by aircraft and equipment custodians. Questionable or incomplete records leave receiving activities no alternative but to assume that previous inspection requirements were not completed. REPAIR/REWORK RECORD, OPNAV 4790/23A The Repair/Rework Record (fig. 7-6) is used in the logbook and the AESR. It contains a complete record Figure 7-3.—Structural Life Limits (OPNAV 4790/142). 7-7

Figure 7-4.—Monthly Flight Summary (OPNAV 1790/21A). Figure 7-5.—Inspection Record (OPNAV 4790/22A). 7-8

of all repair, reconditioning, scheduled depot-level maintenance (SDLM), conversion, modification, modernization, and aircraft service period adjustment (ASPA) inspections performed on the aircraft. The logbook always accompanies the aircraft when it is inducted into a rework facility, even though there is no change in the reporting custodian. TECHNICAL DIRECTIVES, OPNAV 4790/24A OPNAV 4790/24A (fig. 7-7) is used in both the aircraft logbook and the AESR, and is used to document the technical directives (TDs) affecting the airframe structure and its integral parts. Separate pages are required to record each type of TD on equipment. TDs concerning equipment other than engines present no special problems in recording because the quantity of these TDs is relatively small. Power plant changes (PPCs) and power plant bulletins (PPBs), however, are issued in greater numbers and require careful screening to ensure the AESR reflects the actual configuration of the equipment. Technical directive requirements lists require different recordkeeping procedures. The Naval Aviation Logistics Center (NAVAV- NLOGCEN) prepares technical directive requirements lists that include list No. 02, Directives Applicable to a Specific Bureau/Serial Number (but not incorporated), and list No. 04, Directives Applicable to a Specific Bureau/Serial Number (and reported as incorporated). The NAVAVNLOGCEN distributes these lists to reporting custodians and functional wings according to NAVAIRINST 13050.3 (series). When you receive initial lists Nos. 02 and 04, remove OPNAV Form 4790/24A. After verification against the new lists Nos. 02 and 04, retain or destroy the old form as directed. Insert list No. 02 and list No. 04 in the TD section of the aircraft logbook. List No. 02 precedes list No. 04. When a new TD is received, add it to list No. 02. As the work center complies with each TD, annotate list No. 02 and add the information to list No. 04. This provides a complete, up-to-date configuration listing of the aircraft at any given time. Figure 7-6.—Repair/Rework Record (OPNAV 4790/23A). 7-9

Figure 7-7.—Technical Directives (OPNAV 4790/24A). Record interim TDs on the same sheet as formal TDs, and identify by an "I" preceding the TD number. MISCELLANEOUS/HISTORY, OPNAV 4790/25A Operating activities record significant information on OPNAV 4790/25A (fig. 7-8) that affects the aircraft for which no other space is provided in the logbook. Such information includes abnormal flight characteristics, peculiar undetermined troubles, damage to aircraft, major component changes not logged elsewhere in the logbook (struts, control surfaces, and tail sections), historical data, preservation/depreservation data, aircraft compass calibration readings, and authorization for service period extensions. When aircraft are exposed to large quantities of salt water, fire-extinguishing agents, or other corrosive medium, you should make an entry on this form. Include a description of the decontamination accomplished and approximate time between exposure and completion of decontamination. When adding dye directly to the aircraft fuel tanks to determine the location of a leak, note it on this form. These entries are a permanent part of the logbook. This section may also be used to record serial number information concerning research and development and bailment aircraft; for example, special modifications and special testing. The date of occurrence is placed in the date column. Also, log hydraulic contamination in this section whenever the contamination level exceeds Navy Standard Class Five contamination. This form is also used in the AESR to record pertinent information that affects equipment for which no other space is provided. Information which may need to be documented includes special test data, significant damage/repair, Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) results, exposure to fire-extinguishing agents or salt water, etc. PRESERVATION/DEPRESERVATION RECORD, OPNAV 4790/136A This form (fig. 7-9) is used in the aircraft logbook, AESR, or module service record (MSR). An entry is required any time preservation, represervation, or 7-10

Figure 7-8.—Miscellaneous/History (OPNAV 4790/25A). Figure 7-9.—Preservation/Depreservation Record (OPNAV 4790/136A). 7-11

depreservation is performed on the aircraft or its in-flight refueling stores) are recorded in the Installed equipment. Explosive Device Form of the appropriate AESR. For installed equipment, entries are required in the AESR or MSR if the applicable preservation MRCs or the NA 15-01-500, Preservation of Naval Aircraft, specify a preservation requirement. No entry is required if the equipment is not preserved as part of an aircraft preservation action. Explosive devices installed in personnel parachutes are recorded on the Parachute Record (OPNAV 47901101) and in other safety and survival equipment on the Seat Survival Kit Record (OPNAV 4790/137) or Aircrew Systems Record (OPNAV 4790/138). All other explosive devices should be recorded on the Installed Explosive Device Record of the aircraft logbook (fig. 7-10).Entries are required in the AESR or MSR of uninstalled equipment if the applicable maintenance manual specifies a preservation requirement. For example, an aircraft engine made ready for installation (RFI) and not immediately installed on an aircraft would have to be preserved, and an entry would be made in the AESR. INSTALLED EXPLOSIVE DEVICE RECORD, OPNAV 4790/26A This section of the aircraft logbook contains a record of all explosive devices installed in the aircraft and/or major assemblies; for example, initiators and canopy releases. Explosive devices installed in major assemblies/equipment (such as ejection seats and INVENTORY RECORD, OPNAV 4790/27A This form (fig. 7-11) is used to maintain a current inventory of all equipment, components, and assemblies requiring an MSR, ASR, EHR, or SRC card as directed by the Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (NAVAIR 01-XXX-6) for the aircraft. Aircraft engines, auxiliary power units, ejection seats, and other major components requiring an AESR are not to be listed in this section, or any other part of the aircraft logbook except the AESR, when it becomes part of the logbook upon transfer of the aircraft. Figure 7-10.—Installed Explosive Device Record (OPNAV 4790/26A). 7-12

Figure 7-11.—Inventory Record (OPNAV 4790/27A). Module Service Records (MSRs), Assembly Service Records (ASRs), Equipment History Records (EHRs), and Scheduled Removal Component Cards (SRCs) are discussed later in the text. AVIATION LIFE SUPPORT SYSTEM (ALSS) RECORDS This section of the aircraft logbook contains a file of all aircraft-installed ALSS records, excluding aircraft equipped with ejection seats. When an aircraft has ejection seats, the records are inserted into the appropriate ejection seat AESR. ALSS records include the forms and records discussed in the following paragraphs. The Parachute Record, OPNAV 4790/101, (fig. 7-12) provides the current configuration and inspection record for a parachute assembly, as well as its components throughout its service life. The form is a two-part, no-carbon-required form. The hardback copy is filed in the logbook of the aircraft in which the parachute is installed. The original copy of the record is kept in a permanent file as designated by the AMO. The Seat Survival Kit Record, OPNAV 4790/137, (fig. 7-13) provides configuration and inspection information for the seat survival kit and its components. This record is a two-part, no-carbon-required form. The hardback copy is filed in the aircraft logbook. The original copy is kept in a permanent file as designated by the AMO. The Aircrew Systems Record, OPNAV 4790/138, (fig. 7-14) provides a continuous configuration and inspection record of ALSS components, kits, and assemblies. This record is a single copy, two-sided form, which is filed in the logbook of the aircraft for which the ALSS component, kit, or assembly is installed. For personnel-mounted equipment or other equipment that is not aircraft mounted, the record will be maintained as directed by the AMO. When any of the above listed ALSS components, kits, or assemblies are involved in an aircraft mishap, the appropriate records are to be forwarded as required by OPNAVINST 3750.6 and NAVAIR 13-1-13 manuals for investigation. 7-13

Figure 7-12.—Parachute Record (OPNAV 4790/101). Figure 7-13.—Seat Survival Kit Record (OPNAV 4790/137). 7-14

Figure 7-14.—Aircrew Systems Record (OPNAV 4790/138). Q2l. Q22. Q23. Q24. Q25. Q26. Q27. What information MUST be transcribed on both sides of each logbook page to ensure positive identification when pages are removed? Who is responsible for maintaining aircraft logbooks? Where can information be obtained on a specific aircrafts structural life limitations? On what OPNAV record in the logbook would an overweight landing inspection be recorded? On what OPNAV record in the logbook would an aircraft service period adjustment (ASPA) inspection be recorded? Where and how are interim technical directives (TDs) recorded? What is the purpose of the Miscellaneous/History Record? Q28. When is an entry not required on OPNAV 4790/136A for preservation of installed equipment? Q29. When aviation life support system's components, kits, or assemblies are involved in an aircraft mishap, what must be done with the associated records? AERONAUTICAL EQUIPMENT SERVICE RECORD, OPNAV 4790/29 LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Recognize the different parts of the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record and their purpose. The AESR is a loose-leaf record. It may be inserted in the aircraft logbook or it may stand alone. The AESR is maintained similarly to the aircraft logbook, and the same OPNAV forms are used in it. The activity that has custody of the particular 7-15

equipment maintains this record. The following is a list of the currently required applications of the AESR to specific equipment: Aircraft power plant Airborne gun pods (for example, GPU-2/A, ADEN) Low-level escape system Propeller assembly In-flight refueling store or package Auxiliary, power unit (APU) AN/ALQ-99 pod Aeronautical expeditionary airfield M-11, M-22, M-23, and V-1, V-7, and L-series lighting systems Gas turbine power plant (7LM 1500 PB-104) MK-105 magnetic minesweeping gear SE gas turbine engines (listed in NAV- AIRNOTE 4700) Engine test cell or stand The AESR (fig. 7-15) is a permanent part of the aircraft logbook for equipments installed at the time of aircraft transfer. Module Service Record (MSR) (OPNAV 4790/135) Modular engine design allows intermediate level facilities to readily remove and replace interchangeable with ready-for-issue (RFI) spares. The MSR (fig. 7-16) provides the method for recording the maintenance data for these modules and their life limited assemblies and components. This MSR will be attached to and accompany the component to its final destination. Figure 7-15.—Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (OPNAV 4790/29). 7-16

Figure 7-16.—Module Service Record (OPNAV 4790/135). Once the module is installed in a particular propulsion system, this record is maintained concurrently with, and becomes part of, the propulsion system AESR. Assembly Service Record (ASR) (OPNAV 4790/106A) The ASR (fig. 7-17) is a two page form that provides data tracking on assemblies. Items that require an ASR are items with rework or overhaul life limits and subassemblies designated to be removed by any organization and discarded. Equipment History Record (EHR) Card (OPNAV 4790/113) The EHR card (fig. 7-18) is a two page form used to record maintenance, inspections, TD compliance, and usage data on maintenance engineering cognizant field activity (MECFA) designated components, quick engine change kits (QECKs), and armament equipment. An individual card for each EHR component is maintained as part of the aircraft logbook, AESR, or MSR while the component is installed in or on the aircraft. When the component is removed, the EHR accompanies the component. Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) Card (OPNAV 4790/28A) The SRC card (fig. 7-19) is used to record maintenance history data of aeronautical components that are (through engineering analysis) determined to be life limited. The SRC card is used to record maintenance history, installation, and usage data on designated SRCs. An individual card for each SRC item is maintained as part of the logbook, AESR, MSR, or equipment as long as that item is installed. When the item/component is removed from the aircraft, the SRC card accompanies the component. 7-17

Figure 7-17.—Assembly Service Record (OPNAV 4790/106A). NOTE: For more detailed information on documentation procedures for the AESR, MSR, ASR, EHR, and SRC, refer to OPNAVINST 4790.2. Q30. Once an engine module is installed in a particular propulsion system, what becomes of the Module Service Record (MSR)? Q31. In what section of the Assembly Service Record is the removal data documented? Q32. What record is used to document the maintenance history data of an aeronautical component that has been determined to be life limited? NAVAL FLIGHT RECORD SUBSYSTEM (NAVFLIRS) LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Describe the purpose of the Naval Flight Record Subsystem. The NAVFLIRS provides a standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection system. The NAVFLIR form (OPNAV 3710/4) consists of an original and two copies. All three copies contain identical information, which is outlined in OPNAVINST 3710.7. A NAVFLIRS is required to be completed for each attempt at flight and is certified for completeness and accuracy by the aircraft or mission commander. Once the form is completed, maintenance control screens it for accuracy of aircraft information (BUNO, flight time, engine operating time) and transcribes applicable data in the aircraft logbook. Operations personnel will screen it and transcribe information in the aviators logbooks. Enhanced Comprehensive Asset Management System (ECAMS) sites will forward copies 1 and 3 to the ECAMS operator for entry of the required information for ECAMS reports and tracking 7-18

Figure 7-18.—Equipment History Record (EHR) card, (OPNAV 4790/113A). purposes. Then, the ECAMS operator forwards the copies to the analyst. Copy 3 is filed in maintenance control, and copy 1 is sent to the data services facility (DSF) for data entry and the production of various NAVFLIRS reports. Ensuring the validity of NAVFLIRS data requires complete coordination between the analyst, maintenance control, and the operations department. AIMD production effort. Production control has the following responsibilities. Scheduling the workload, using procedures and priorities established by the maintenance material control officer. Coordinating and controlling the production effort to ensure efficient movement of components through the activity. Maintaining the required files and records to support the productive effort. Keeping the maintenance material control officer informed of overall workload status. Q33. What system was devised to provide standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection information? PRODUCTION CONTROL LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Identify the responsibilities of production control. Production control, like maintenance control of the organizational maintenance department, is the nucleus of the AIMD. It is responsible to the maintenance material control officer for the overall Maintaining positive control of all accountable material. Ensuring maximum use of personnel and material resources. Maintaining liaison with the supply department and the various production work centers. 7-19

Figure 7-19.—Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) card (OPSAV 4790/28A). Q31. In the intermediate maintenance activity (IMA), what work center is responsible for maintaining positive control of all accountable material? Maintaining VIDS display boards and verify that The quantity of like items in the supply department the various work center VIDS display boards are determines the priority set on the inducted item. Once in parity. If operating under NALCOMIS. ensure the IMA has the component, production control tracks work centers are updating NALCOMIS as it and manages the priority as it goes through the repair required. cycle. Ensuring packaging, preservation, and represervation is done according to applicable technical manuals. It is important to remember that production control is the nerve center of the intermediate maintenance activity (IMA). The IMAs primary purpose is to support the squadrons and to help the supply department support the squadrons. When a local squadron is in need of a repairable aircraft component, its use of a replacement part from supply directly affects the IMA. The bad part removed from the aircraft (retrograde component) will eventually show up in the aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU), and if they have the capability to repair it, that component will be inducted in the IMA. SUPPLY PRIORITIES/PROJECT CODE ASSIGNMENT When informed by the repairing work center of repair parts requirements. production control assigns the supply priority and project code. As discussed in chapter 3, all Navy activities are assigned a force activity designator (FAD) for determining priorities for material support based on their mission. The FAD is correlated with an urgency-of-need requirement to determine the priority assigned to requisitions. For example, a FAD 7-20

II activity can submit priority 2, 5, and 12 requisitions, depending on the urgency of requirement as related to mission readiness. A FAD III activity would submit priority 3, 6, and 13 requisitions for corresponding requirements. Project codes are assigned to identify requisitions and related documents applicable to specific projects or programs and are mandatory entries on all requisitions. Project/Priority codes are discussed in more detail in chapter 3 and in OPNAVINST 4790.2. AWAITING PARTS VALIDATION LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Recognize the purpose for performing awaiting parts validations. Validation of AWP items, using the AWP list provided by the aviation support division (ASD), is performed jointly with the AWP unit in supply at least weekly. AWP validation ensures all parts on order by a particular command are still required and all required parts are still on order. This validation also points out possible cannibalization actions, which can reduce the number of AWP components. Q35. What action is taken at least weekly to ensure all parts on order are still required and all required parts are still on order? WORKLOAD PRIORITY ASSIGNMENT LEARNING OBJECTIVE: Identify the different priorities assigned to I-level maintenance workloads. Production control, working with the component control section (CCS) and the aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU) of the supply department, will set workload priorities based on the following: Priority 1. Support of non-mission capable (NMC) or partial-mission capable (PMC) aircraft; NMCS or PMCS items, based on a valid outstanding requisition held by supply; expeditious repair (EXREP); or work requests causing NMC or PMS conditions on an aircraft will be assigned priority 1. Priority 1 is also assigned to activities within 30 days of deployment. Priority 2. Repair of critical local repair cycle assets (LRCAs) and SE. This priority is also assigned to O-level maintenance work stoppage requirements. 7-21 Priority 3. Repair of non-critical LRCAs and SE and repair or manufacture of material for non-fixed allowance stock. Priority 4. Processing of salvaged material and nonaeronautical work. These priorities may be adjusted by the IMA maintenance and supply officers as necessary to meet local support requirements and operation conditions. Q36. Production control works with what other work centers in the supply department to set workload priorities? EQUIPMENT STATUS REPORTS The successful operation of an IMA from production control depends on knowledge. As mentioned before, production control is the nerve center of the IMA. If a supported activity needs anything in the way of support from the I-level activity, it will contact production control. For production control to have its finger on the pulse of the entire department, it needs to be continuously updated on equipment status. From the status of support equipment to avionics test benches, the production control chief MUST know at a glance what assets he has available to work with. Equipment status reports normally provide this information. These status reports are normally furnished to production control at the beginning of each work day and sometimes at the beginning of each shift. Equipment status reports provide important information, such as how many NCPP-105 air start units are on board, and how many of them are up (fully operational) or how many are down, what maintenance is required to make them ready for use, and when they are anticipated to be ready for use. Almost every division in the IMA provides these reports to the production control officer, with information pertinent to the successful operation of an IMA. SUMMARY This chapter touched only briefly on the responsibilities of maintenance and production control. It is by no means an all inclusive recipe book for successful operation of either work center. Both maintenance control at the O-level and production control at the I-level are very important and busy management offices. Communication and teamwork are key factors in managing a successful work center.

ANSWERS TO REVIEW QUESTIONS A1. The efficient attainment of objectives. A2. Actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability. A3. Actions taken to retain or restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with a minimum expenditure of resources. A4. Maintenance control. A5. Maintenance control. A6 Maintenance control. A7. Maintenance control. A8. Maintenance control. A9. It allows all the supervisors within your department or division to brief the maintenance chief on the status of equipment, components, or aircraft that currently have ongoing work or are scheduled to have maintenance performed. A10. Aircraft Material Readiness Reporting (AMRR), COMNAVAIRLANT/ COMNAVAIRPAC INSTRUCTION 5442.5D. A11. At least 10 flights or until the completion of the next like inspection. A12. The aircraft maintenance officer (AMO) or his designated representative. A13. Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record. A14. Prior to the first flight of the day. A15. OPNAVINST 4790.2, Vol III. A16. One inspection cycle or 6 months, whichever is greater. A17. Miscellaneous file. A18. SCIR reports. A19. The first position of the EOC code. A20. They are computer generated as determined by the documented Work Unit Code (WUC). A21. Aircraft model and bureau number. A22. Reporting or physical custodians of all naval aircraft. A23. The periodic maintenance information cards (PMCs) for that specific aircraft. A24. Inspection Record OPNAV 4790/22A. A25. Repair/Rework Record, OPNAV 4790/23A. A26. Interim TDs are recorded on the same sheet as formal TDs and identified by an "I" preceding the TD number. A27. It provides a means of recording significant information that affects the aircraft or equipment for which no other space is provided in the logbook. A28. If the equipment is not preserved as part of an aircraft preservation action. 7-22

A29. A30. A31. A32. A33. A34. A35. A36. The appropriate records are to be forwarded as required by OPNAVINST 3750.6 and NAVAIR 13-1-13 manuals for investigation. It is maintained concurrently with and becomes part of the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR). Section IV. The Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) Card OPNAV 4790/28A. Naval Flight Record Subsystem (NAVFLIRS). Production control. Awaiting parts (AWP) validation. Component control section (CCS) and the aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU). 7-23

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APPENDIX I GLOSSARY ABO—Aviators’ breathing oxygen. ACC—Aircraft controlling custodian. ACCUMULATORS —Shock absorber, storage cell. AD—Aviation Machinist’s Mate. ADP—Automatic data processing. ADRL—Automatic distribution requirements listing. AE—Aviation Electrician’s Mate. AEPS—Aircrew escape propulsion systems. AFFF—Aqueous film-forming foam. AIMD—Aircraft intermediate maintenance department. AIR—Aircraft inventory record. AK—Aviation Storekeeper. ALPHABETIC SEQUENCE —A sequence that begins at the extreme left-hand position beginning with the letter A and progresses through 2 from left to right, one position at a time, until all positions of the group of letters have been considered. AM—Aviation Structural Mechanic. AME—Aviation Structural Mechanic, Safety Equipment. AMH—Aviation Structural Mechanic, Hydraulics. AMS—Aviation Structural Mechanic, Structures. AMSU—Aeronautical material screening unit. AO—Aviation Ordnancemen. AR—As required. AS—Aviation Support Equipment Technician. ASD—Aviation support division. ASG—Afloat Shopping Guide. ASO—Aviation Supply Office. ASR—Assembly service record. AT—Aviation Electronics Technician (I-Intermediate Level Specialty/O-Organizational Level Specialty). AUTODIN—Automatic Digital Network. AWM —Awaiting maintenance. AWP—Awaiting parts/aircraft awaiting parts. AWSE—Armament weapons support equipment. BCM—Beyond capability of maintenance. BUNO—Bureau number (aircraft). CAD—Cartridge-actuated device. CAGE—Commercial and Government Entity. Replaced Manufacturer’s code. A five-position code assigned to manufacturer’s and nonmanufacturer’s organizational entities and contractors of items procured by agencies of the Federal Government. CCS—Component control section. CDI—Collateral duty inspector. CDQAR—Collateral duty quality assurance representative. CECR—Change Entry Certification Record. CER—Complete engine repair. CERRC—Complete Engine Repair Requirement Card. CFA—Cognizant field activity. CFE—Contractor-furnished equipment. CNO—Chief of Naval Operations. CO—Commanding officer. COG—Cognizant. COMNAVAIRSYSCOM—Commander, Naval Air Systems Command. CPO—Chief petty officer. CRIPL —Consolidated remain in place list. CTPL—Central technical publications library. CV—Aircraft carrier. DAR—Defense acquisition regulations. DCNO(AIR)—Deputy Chief of Naval Operations for Air. AI-1

DOD—Department of Defense. DON—Department Of Navy. DOP—Designated overhaul point. DSF—Defense stock fund, document status file. document stock file, or data services facility. DTG—Date-time group identifies date and time a message was transmitted and who the releasing activity was. DTPL—Dispersed technical publications library. EGRESS —A means of going out of or ejecting from an aircraft. EHR—Equipment history record. EOC—Equipment Operational Capability code. ESD—Electrostatic discharge. EXBEP—Expeditious repair. FAD—Force/activity designator. FCF—Functional check flight. FOD—Foreign object damage. FSC—Federal supply classification. HSU—Hydraulic fluid service unit. ICBL—Individual component repair list. I-LEVEL MAINTENANCE —Maintenance performed at the intermediate level as designated by the NAMP, OPNAVINST 4790.2. IMA—Intermediate maintenance activity. IMRL—Individual Material Readiness List. IPB—Illustrated parts breakdown. JCN—Job control number. LHA—Helicopter assault landing ship. LOX—Liquid oxygen. LPA—Amphibious assault ship. LRCA—Local repair cycle asset. MAF—Maintenance Action Form. MCIU—Master Cross-Reference List. MDR—Maintenance Data Report. MDS—Maintenance Data System. MDU—Material delivery unit. MEASURE —Metrology Automated System for Uniform Recall and Reporting. MEK—Methyl ethyl keytone. METCAL—Metrology and Calibration Program. MI—Maintenance instruction. MILSTRIP—Military Standard Requisitioning Issue Procedure. MIM—Maintenance instruction manual. ML-N—Management data list Navy. MMCO—Maintenance material control officer. MMP—Monthly maintenance plan. MRC—Maintenance requirements card. MRIL—Master Repairable Item List. MS—Military specification. MSR—Module service record. MTIR—Mandatory turn-in repairable. NA—NAVAIR. NADEP—Naval aviation depot. NALCOMIS —Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System. NAMDRP —Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program. NAMP—Naval Aviation Maintenance Program. NAPI—Naval Aeronautic Publications Index. NARU—Naval air reserve unit. NATOPS—Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization. NATSF, NAVAIRTECHSERVFAC—Naval air technical services facility. NAVAIR, NAVAIRSYSCOM—Naval Air Systems Command. NAVAIRINST —Naval Air Systems Command instruction. NAVAVNDEPOT —Naval aviation depot. NAVOSH —Naval Occupational Safety and Health. NAVSEA —Naval Sea Systems Command. NAVSUP—Naval Supply Systems Command. NC—Not carried. NDI—Nondestructive inspection. AI-2

NIIN—National item identification number. NIS—Not in stock. NMCS—Not-mission-capable supply. NOAP—Navy Oil Analysis Program. NON-RFI—Nonready-for-issue. NSN—National Stock Number (13 digits). NUMERIC SEQUENCE —A sequence of numbers beginning at the extreme left-hand position, from left to right in ascending order, one position at a time, until all digits have been considered. NWPL —Naval warfare publication library. OIC—Officer in charge. OJT—On-the-job training. OLEOS—The shiny part of actuating cylinders and struts. O-LEVEL MAINTENANCE —Organizational- level maintenance. OMA—Organizational maintenance activity. OMD—Operations maintenance department. OPNAV—Office of the Chief of Naval Operations. OPNAVINST —Office of the Chief of Naval Opera- tions instruction. OUTUS—Outside continental limits United States. PEB—Pre-expended bin. PI SUFFIX—Publication identifier suffix. PM—Periodic maintenance. PMCS—Partial mission capable supply. PME—Precision measuring equipment. PMIC—Periodic maintenance information card. PMS—Planned maintenance system. PON-6—Preoiler portable, hand—carried hand pump with a 3-gallon capacity. PQS—Personnel qualification standard. PR—Aircrew Survival Equipmentman. PSI—Position-sensitive indicator. PUC—Permanent Unit Code. QA—Quality assurance. QA/A—Quality assurance/analysis. AI-3 QAR—Quality assurance representative. RAC—Rapid action change. RAMEC—Rapid action minor engineering change. RAT—Ram air turbine. REF—Reference. RFI—Ready for issue. RTV—Room temperature vulcanizing. SCC—Sequence control chart/card. SCIR—Subsystem capability impact reporting. SDLM—Standard depot—level maintenance. SE—Support equipment. SEAOPDET—Sea operational detachment. SERVMART—Service market. SIM—Service instruction manual. SIMs—Service instruction manuals. SM&R—Source, maintenance and recoverability. SPAWARSYSCOM —Space Warfare Systems Command. SPEC DWG —Specification control drawing number. SRA—Shop replaceable assembly. SRC—Scheduled removal component. SRC CARD —Scheduled Removal Component Card, OPNAV 4790/28A. All components with maximum operating hours assigned (high-time items) must be accompanied by an SRC card. SRM—Structural repair manual. SRS—Supply response section. SSC—Supply support center. SSCC—Standard Subject Classification Code. SUBJ SERIAL —Subject serial number. SWP—Subordinate work package. TAT—Turnaround time. TCP—Tool Control Program. TCPL—Tool control plan. TD—Technical directive. TDC—Technical directive compliance.

TEC—Type Equipment code. TMINS—Technical Manual Identification Numbering System. TPDR—Technical publication deficiency report. TPL—Technical publications library. TPS—Tactical paint scheme. TRAMAN—Training manual. UIC—Unit Identification Code. UMMIPS—Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System. UND—Urgency of need designator. VAST—Versatile avionics shop test. VIDS—Visual Information Display System. VIDS/MAF —Visual Information Display System/ Maintenance Action Form. WARNINGS, CAUTIONS, AND NOTES —The following definitions apply to warnings, cautions, and notes found in technical manuals. WARNING. An operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed. CAUTION. An operating procedure, practice, or condition that, if not strictly observed, may damage equipment. NOTE. An operation, procedure, practice, or condition that is essential to emphasize. WCC—Work Center code. WP—Work package. WRA—Weapons replaceable assembly. WSE—Weapons and support equipment. WUC—Work Unit Code. AI-4

APPENDIX II Chapter 1 Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), OPNAVINST 4790.2F, Vol I, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1 June 1995, Change 1 of 4 January 1996. Chapter 2 Naval Air Systems Command Technical Manual Program, NAVAIR 00-25-100, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1 July 1994. Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), OPNAVINST 4790.2F, Vol I, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1 June 1995, Change 1 of 4 January 1996. OPNAV Application Guide and Index for the Navy Standard Technical Manual Identification Numbering Systems (TMINS), OPNAV N0000-00-IDX-0001 TMINS, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington D.C., Revision 3 of 28 September 1988. Navy Standard Technical Manual Identification Numbering System, NAVAIR INSTRUCTION 4160.1, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 27 April 1988. Chapter 3 Afloat Supply Procedures Manual, NAVSUP Pub 485, Naval Supply Systems Command, Washington, DC., August 1991 through Change 6 of 31 January 1996. Operating Procedures Manual, MILSTRIP, Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures, MILSTRAP, Military Standard Transaction Reporting and Accounting Procedures, NAVSUP Publication 437, Naval Supply Systems Command, Washington, D.C., July 1991, Change 9 of 16 September 1996. Naval Air Systems Command Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List Program, NAVAIRINST 13650.1C, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 16 January 1992. Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), OPNAVINST 4790.2F, Vol I, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, DC., 1 June 1995, Change 1 of 4 January 1996. AII-1 REFERENCES USED TO DEVELOP THE NONRESIDENT TRAINING COURSE NOTE: Although the following references were current when this NRTC was published, their continued currency cannot be assured. When consulting these references, keep in mind that they may have been revised to reflect new technology or revised methods, practices, or procedures; therefore, you need to ensure that you are studying the latest references.

Chapter 4 Aircraft Weapons Systems Cleaning and Corrosion Control, NAVAIR 01-1A-509, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1 May 1996. Avionics Cleaning and Corrosion Prevention/Control Manual, NAVAIR 16-l-540, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., April 1992. General Aircraft Information, NAVAIR 01-F14AAA-2-1, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., September 1993, Change 3 of 1 August 1996. Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAM), OPNAVINST 4790.2F, Vol I, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1 June 1995, Change 1 of 4 January 1996. Naval Aviation Safety Program, OPNAVINST 3750.64, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., August 1989 through Change 1 of March 1991. Preservation of Naval Aircraft Manual, NAVAIR 15-01-500, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1 February 1994. Principles of Operation Landing Systems, NAVAIR 01-F14AAA-2-2-1, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., April 1993. Chapter 5 Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), OPNAVINST 4790.2F, Vol I, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1 June 1995, Change 1 of 4 January 1996. Naval Aviation Safety Program, OPNAVINST 3750.64, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., August 1989 through Change 1 of March 1991. Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH Program for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.l9C, Vols I and II, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., January 1994, Change 1 of 15 May 1996. Chapter 6 Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), OPNAVINST 4790.2F, Vol I, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1 June 1995, Change 1 of 4 January 1996. Aviation Maintenance Ratings Supervisor, NAVEDTRA 12011-A, Naval Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, Florida, November 1993. Aviation Support Equipment Technician 1, NAVEDTRA 10358, Naval Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, Florida, 1990 edition. Chapter 7 Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), OPNAVINST 4790.2F, Vols I and III, Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1 June 1995, Change 1 of 4 January 1996. Aircraft Material Readiness Reporting (AMRR), CNAP/CNAL Instruction 5442.5D, Commander, Naval Air Force, United States Pacific Fleet, Commander, Naval Air Force, United States Atlantic Fleet, March 1994. AII-2

INDEX-1 INDEX A Abrasive wheel, 4-40 Accessories manuals, 2-27 Administration divisions, 1-7, 1-10 Administrative forms and documents, 1-19 Aeronautical component and equipment manuals, 2-27 Aeronautical publications, 2-29 Afloat Shopping Guide, 3-12 Air servicing trailers, 5-13 Air storage bottles servicing, 5-11 Aircraft divisions, 1-8 Aircraft logbooks, 7-5 ALSS Records, 7-13 Aeronautical Equipment Service Record, 7-15 Inspection Record, 7-7 Installed Explosive Device Record, 7-12 Inventory Record, 7-12 Miscellaneous/History form, 7-10 Monthly Flight Summary form, 7-7 NAVFLIRS, 7-18 Preservation/Depreservation Record, 7-10 Repair/Rework Record form, 7-7 Structural Life Limits form, 7-7 Technical Directives, 7-9 Aircraft maintenance department organization, 1-1 Aircraft maintenance departments, 1-4 Aircraft safety, 5-16 Airfield lighting and related accessories manuals, 2-27 Airframes, 1-8, 1-11 Aliphatic naphtha, 4-7 Aluminum on aircraft, 4-35, 4-36 Amendment of technical directives, 2-32 Ammonium hydroxide, 4-8 Analysis of aircraft maintenance, 1-7 Approach magazine, 2-30 Aqueous film-forming foam, 4-8 Armament and accessories publications, 2-27 Armament equipment, 1-11 Automatic Distribution Requirements List, 2-34 Aviation support divisions, 3-23 Avionics, 1-8, 1-11 Avionics and armament divisions, 1-8 Avionic systems, 4-26 B Barrier materials, 4-17 Batteries, 4-27 compartments, 4-27 vent openings, 4-27 Bilge areas, 4-32 Blast areas, 4-32 gun, 4-32 JATO, 4-32 rocket, 4-32 C Cadmium in aircraft, 4-38 Cannon plugs, 4-28 Cargo loading manuals, 2-25 Cataloging system in supply, 3-3 Central technical publications libraries, 2-33 library stamp, 2-34 outfitting, 2-34 Change Entry Certification Record, 2-34 Changes to publications, 2-7 Checklists, 2-29 Chemical surface treatment, 4-45 Chromium alloys in aircraft, 4-39 Cleaning of aircraft, 4-8 aluminum metal polish, 4-9 aluminum oxide abrasive cloth, 4-9 cleaning compound, 4-8 cleaning with limited water, 4-13 detergents, 4-9 dry-cleaning solvent, 4-7 equipment, 4-10 impregnated cotton wadding, 4-9 materials, 4-9 mechanical cleaning, 4-9 methods, 4-11 power tools on surfaces, 4-43 preparation, 4-11 sodium bicarbonate, 4-8 sodium phosphate, 4-8 spot cleaning, 4-13 surface cleaning compound, 4-8 waterless wipedown cleaning, 4-13 Cleaning avionics equipment, 4-9, 4-13 Coating compounds, 4-16 Coaxial connectors, 4-28 Coded National Stock Numbers, 3-13 Codes used aircraft maintenance documentation, 1-22, 1-23 Cognizance symbols, 3-13 Combustible liquids, 4-6 Commercial manuals, 2-2 Component control sections, 3-24 Consolidated Remain In Place Lists, 3-10 Copper and copper alloys in aircraft. 4-38 Corrosion, 4-1 concentration cell, 4-20 control. 4-1 crevice attack, 4-20 damage limits, 4-43 detection, 4-20 direct surface attack, 3-20 dissimilar metal. 4-21 exfoliation, 4-20 fatigue. 4-21 filiform, 4-25 forms of. 4-20 fretting, 4-21 galvanic, 4-21 intergranular. 4-20 microbiological. 4-25 pitting, 4-20 preventive compound (MIL-C-81309), 4-17 preventive compound, solvent cutback, 4-16 preventive petroleum (MIL-C-11796), 4-17 prone areas. 4-26-4-34 recognizing and eliminating, 4-34 stress, 3-24 theory, 4-2 Corrosion removal, 3-39 abrasive wheel, 4-40 aluminum, 3-35, 4-36 cadmium and zinc, 4-38 cleaning surfaces with power tools, 4-43 copper and copper alloys, 4-38 dry, abrasive blasting, 4-43 iron and steel, 4-35 light corrosion, 3-39 magnesium. 4-37 mechanical removal, 4-40 moderate corrosion, 4-40 nickel and chromium alloys, 4-40 nonrepairable damage, 4-40 repairable damage, 4-40 severe corrosion, 4-40 Corrosion removal—Continued titanium, 4-39 VACU-Blast dry honer, 4-40 wet abrasive blasting, 4-42 Crash-damaged aircraft. 5-28 reclamation. 5-28 recovery, 5-28 Crew station manuals, 2-25 D Data accuracy, 1-19 Department of Defense publications, 2-28 Depot maintenance, 1-3 Detergents, liquid, nonionic, 4-9 Dispersed libraries, 2-33 E Egress system checkouts, 5-27 Ejection seats, 4-30 Electronics manuals, 2-28 Electrostatic Discharge Control Prevention Program, 5-28 Exhaust trail areas, 4-3 1 External skin areas, 4-33 F Flammable liquids, 4-6 Flap recesses, 4-33 Flight crew checklists, 2-24 Flight deck safety, 5-22 Fluid service unit, Model HSU-1, 5-15 Force/Activity Designators, 3-2 Foreign Object Damage prevention program, 5-24 Fuel Contamination and Surveillance Program, 5-27 Fueling, 5-6 defueling, 5-10 gravity fueling, 5-7 pressure fueling, 5-7, 5-8 Functional check flight checklists, 2-24 G General engineering series manuals, 2-25 General series manuals (00 series), 2-22 Guided weapons manuals, 2-26 Gun blast areas: 4-32 H Hardware manuals, 2-28 Hearing Conservation Program, 5-28 High-pressure air valve, 5-12 Hydraulic Contamination Control Program, 5-25 Hydraulic fluid replenishment, 5-10 I I-level material control center. 3-22 I-level VIDS boards, 1-17 Illustrated parts breakdowns, 2-20, 3-5 information elements, 3-7 Immediate action directives, 2-32 In-flight maintenance manuals, 2-25 Individual Component Repair Lists, 3-11 Individual Material Readiness Lists, 3-1 6 Inspections of aircraft, 5-32 acceptance, 5-32 conditional, 5-32 daily, 5-32 phase, 5-33 postflight, 5-32 preflight, 5-32 special, 5-33 transfer, 5-32 turnaround, 5-32 zonal, 5-33

INDEX-2 Intake trail areas, 4-31 Intermediate maintenance, 1-9 Iron in aircraft, 4-35 Isopropyl alcohol, 4-9 J JATO blast area, 4-32 Joint Service Uniform Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability Codes, 3-10 L Landing gear, 4-32 Life support equipment, 1-11 Line, 1-9 division, 1-9 operations, 5-1 Line safety, 5-16 Local repair cycle asset storage units, 3-24 Lubrication oil, 4-17 general-purpose, 4-17 preservative, 4-17 M Magnesium in aircraft, 4-37 Maintenance, 1-1, 1-2 avionics, 4-5 levels, 1-1 manuals, 2-2, 2-25, 3-5 responsibilities, 1-1 types, 1-2 Maintenance administration, 1-7 Maintenance control work center, 1-8, 7-2 Maintenance Digest, 2-29 Maintenance instruction manuals, 2-17, 2-25 Maintenance Management, 7-1 Aircraft Discrepancy Book, 7-3 Aircraft historical files, 7-4 Aircraft Status Reports, 7-3 Maintenance Control, 1-8, 7-1 Maintenance meetings, 7-2 Releasing aircraft for flight, 7-3 SCIR, 7-5 Maintenance/material control, 1-8, 1-10,7-2 Maintenance requirements cards, 2-29 Management of aviation maintenance, 1-5 Manufacturers’ service bulletins, 2-29 Master Cross-Reference List, 3-10 Master Repairable Item List, NAVSUP P-4107, 3-10 Material Condition codes, 3-13 Material Control, 1-10 Material Control Center, 1-8 O-level, 3-12 Material Control codes, 3-13 Material delivery unit, 3-23 Material identification, 3-3 Material requirements, 3-17 MECH magazine, 2-30 Methyl. ethyl ketone, 4-8 Metrology and Calibration Program, 5-25 Military specification manuals, 2-2 Missiles, 2-25 Monthly maintenance plan, 1-24 AIMD/IMA, 1-25 O-level, 1-24 Monthly Production Reports, 1-21 Multiple electrical connectors (cannon plugs), 4-28 N NATOPS flight manuals, 2-24 NAVAIR publication numbering system, 2-14 NAVAIR technical manual program, 2-1 NAVAIR technical manuals, 2-22 major categories, 2-22 NAVAIROSH, 2-31 requirements for the shore establishment, 2-31 Naval Aeronautic Publications Index, 2-20 Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System, 1-12 Naval Aviation News magazine, 2-29 Naval Supply Systems Command publications, 3-10 Afloat Shopping Guide (ASG), 3-12 Consolidated Remain in Place List, 3-10 Individual Component Repair List, 3-11 Master Cross-reference List, 3-10 Master Repairable Item List, 3-10 Naval warfare publications library catalog cards, 2-36 Navy Oil Analysis Program, 5-25 Nickel alloys in aircraft, 4-39 Nitrogen servicing trailer, 5-13, 5-14 Nuclear weapons cargo loading manuals, 2-24 O O-level material control centers, 3-22 Oil, preservative, hydraulic equipment (MIL-H-46170), 4-17 Oil replenishment, 5-10 Operational manuals, 2-1, 2-24 Organizational level, 1-6 Organizational maintenance, 1-2 Organizational maintenance structure relationship, 1-5 Oxygen servicing, 5-12 Oxygen surveillance program, 5-27 P Packaging, 4-17 Painting aircraft, 4-46 paint removal, 4-46 painting equipment, 4-49 surface preparation, 4-48 touch-up procedures, 4-48 Periodic Maintenance Information Cards, 2-29 Periodicals, 2-29 Approach, 2-30 MECH, 2-31 Naval Aviation News, 2-29 Piano-type hinges, 4-34 Pilot’s pocket checklists, 2-24 Plane captain, 5-1, 5-2 branch, 5-2 duties, 5-2 qualification, 5-2 Planned maintenance system publications, 2-28 Pneumatic servicing, 5-11 Polyethylene coating cloth, 4-18 Polyethylene plastic film, 4-18 Power plant manuals, 2-26 Power plants, 1-8, 1-11 Pre-expended bins, 3-23 Preoiler (PON-6), 5-14 Preservation of aircraft, 4-15 level I, 4-16 level II, 4-16 level III, 4-16 Pressure-sensitive adhesive tape, 4-18 Primary weapons system technical manuals, 2-23 Priority codes: 3-1 Priority in supply, 3-2 Production control, 1-11, 7-19 Awaiting Parts Validation, 7-21 Equipment Status Reports, 7-21 Workload priority assignments, 7-21 Production divisions, 1-8, 1-11 Project codes, 3-1, 7-20 Q Quality assurance concepts, 6-6 Functions, 6-10 Inspectors, 6-11 Representatives, 6-9, 6-10,6-11 Responsibilities, 6-7, 6-8 Training, 6-1 1 Quality assurance/analysis division, 1-7, 1-10, 6-8 Quality assurance programs, 6-14 Quality assurance audits, 6-14 Division safety, 6-15 Engineering investigations, 6-17 NAMDRP, 6-16 Special audits, 6-15 Work center audits, 6-15 Quality Deficiency Report, 6-18 Aircraft Discrepancy Report, 6-18 AVGFE Program, 6-20 SE Misuse/Abuse Report, 6-19 TD Deficiency Report, 6-18 R Reclamation of aircraft, 4-15 Rework maintenance, 1-2 Rocket blast area, 4-32 Routine action directives, 2-33 Rubber material manuals, 2-27 S Safety, 5-3, 5-16 aircraft servicing, 5-3 engine noise, 5-18 exhaust area hazards, 5-18 flight deck, 5-22 intake ducts, 5-16 line, 5-1 liquid oxygen, 5-21 LOX protective clothing, 5-21 movable surface hazards, 5-18, 5-19 overheated wheel brakes, 5-20 propellers and rotors, 5-16 publications, 2-31 seat ejection mechanisms, 5-20 Safety solvent, 4-7 Sealants in aircraft maintenance, 4-50, 4-51 application, 4-51 curing sealants, 4-51 drying sealants, 4-51 pliable sealants, 4-50 Security of aircraft, 5-16 Sequence control charts/cards, 2-30 Servicing aircraft, 5-3 fueling, 5-6 hydraulic fluid, 5-10 oil, 5-10 oxygen, 5-12 safety practices, 5-3, 5-4 tire inflation, 5-11 walkways, 5-4, 5-6 Servicing equipment, 5-12 fluid service units, 5-15 high-pressure air valves, 5-12 preoilers, 5-14 servicing trailers, 5-13 Shore stations in naval aviation, 1-4 Sodium bicarbonate, 4-8 Sodium phosphate, 4-8 Soils, 4-10 classification, 4-10 removal, 4-10 Solvents, 4-6 aliphate naphtha, 4-7 ammonium hydroxide, 4-8 aqueous film-forming foam, 4-8 dry-cleaning solvent, 4-7 methyl ethyl ketone, 4-8 safety solvent, 4-7 sodium bicarbonate, 4-8 sodium phosphate, 4-8 Special Material Identification Code (SMIC), 3-12 Special programs, 5-22 egress system, 5-27 Electrostatic Discharge Control/Prevention Program, 5-28

INDEX-3 Special programs—Continued emergency reclamation of crash-damaged aircraft, 5-28 foreign object damage prevention, 5-24 fuel contamination and surveillance program, 5-27 hearing conservation, 5-28 hydraulic contamination control, 5-25 metrology and calibration program, 5-25 oil analysis, 5-25 oxygen surveillance, 5-27 Support Equipment Misuse/Abuse Program, 5-29 support equipment training and licensing program, 5-29 tool control, 5-24, 5-25 training, 5-28 Special rework, 1-2 Special upkeep, 1-2 Speed brake recesses, 4-33 Squadrons, 1-4 Staff divisions, 1-6, 1-10 Standard preservation and packaging information manual, 2-28 Standard rework, 1-2 Standard upkeep, 1-2 Steel in aircraft, 4-35 Stores loading manuals, 2-24 Stores reliability cards, 2-24 Structural Repair Manual, 2-26 Supply response section, 3-23 Supply support center, 3-23 Support equipment, 1-11, 5- 1 branch, 5-1 corrosion removal, 4-40 manuals, 2-28 preservation, 4-18 preventive maintenance schedule, 4-4 Support Equipment Misuse/Abuse Program, 5-29, 6-73 Support Equipment Operator Training/Licensing Program, 5-29 Support equipment records/forms/documents, 1-23 SE Custody and Maintenance History Record (OPNAV 4790/51), 1-23 SE Preoperational Record, (OPNAV FORM 4790/52), 1-24 Surface cleaning compound, 4-8 Surface maintenance, 4-5 Survival equipment manuals, 2-28 T Tactical manuals, 2-24 Tactical paint scheme, 4-8 type I, 4-8 type II, 4-8 type III, 4-8 type IV, 4-8 type V, 4-8 Target and drone manuals, 2-25 Technical directives, 2-3 1, 7-23 categories, 2-32 numbering, 2-32 system, 2-3 1 titles, 2-32 updating methods, 2-32 Technical library audit, 2-34 Technical manuals, 2-1 formats, 2-1 styles, 2-2 Technical manual numbering, 2-15 NAVAIR Technical Manual Numbering System (old system), 2-14 Technical Manual Identification Numbering System, 2-16 Technical manual series, 2-27 special application, 2-27 Technical publication deficiency report, 2-35 Technical publications, 2-1 revision, 3-8, 2-32 types. 2-1 update methods, 2-8 Technical publications library, 2-33 Tire inflation, 5-11 Trail area, 3-31 exhaust, 4-31 intake. 4-31 Tool Control Program, 5-24, 5-25 Trichlorotrifluoroethane, 4-9 Troubleshooter branch, 5-2 U Upkeep maintenance, 1-2 Urgent action directives, 2-33 V VACU-Blast dry honer, 4-40, 4-41 Visual Information Display System board, 1-12 O-level, 1-12 operating procedures, 1-15, 1-18 Visual Information Display System/Maintenance Action Form, 1-14 Copy 1, Daily Audit Report, 1-2 1 Flow, 1-16 W Walkways on aircraft, 5-4 Water-detergent cleaning, 4-11 Water entrapment areas, 4-33 Water-vaporproof barrier materials, 4-18 Waterless wipedown cleaning, 4-13 Weapons assembly checklist manuals for airborne missiles, 2-26 Weapons loading checklists, 2-24 Weapons loading manuals, 2-24 Weight and balance data manuals, 2-25 Wet, abrasive blasting, 4-42 Wheel wells, 4-32 Wing fold recesses. 4-33 Work centers, 6-1 Arrangement, 6-3, 6-4 Daily maintenance meetings, 6-5 Operation, 6-2, 6-10 Personnel requirements, 6-5 Personnel assignments, 6-5 Scheduling of workload, 6-4 Work Unit Code (WUC) manual, 2-25 Z Zinc in aircraft, 4-38

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ASSIGNMENT 1 Textbook Assignment: "Maintenance Administration." Pages 1-1 through 1-29. 1-1. An important objective of the NAMP is to achieve and maintain maximum material readiness. Which of the following statements reflects additional objectives of the NAMP? 1. Conservation of time 2. Safety and conservation of material 3. Conservation of manpower only 4. Safety and conservation of manpower 1-2. What is the purpose of the Aircraft Maintenance Department within an organization? 1. 2. 3. 4. Perform scheduled maintenance on assigned aircraft Perform unscheduled maintenance on assigned aircraft Repair reported discrepancies on squadron aircraft Maintain assigned aircraft in a Full-Mission-Capable state in support of the units mission 1-3. What are the major types of aircraft maintenance? 1. Organizational, intermediate, and depot 2. Standard and special 3. Rework and upkeep 4. Scheduled and unscheduled 1-4. Restorative work performed on an item of support equipment is considered what type(s) of work? 1-5. A comprehensive depot-level inspection of selected aircraft structures and materials and correction of any critical defects is what type of maintenance? 1. Upkeep 2. Special rework 3. Standard rework 4. Standard upkeep 1-6. Maintenance performed on aircraft or equipment to improve its specific function is known as what type of maintenance? 1. Standard rework maintenance 2. Special rework maintenance 3. Organizational maintenance 4. Intermediate maintenance 1-7. Preventive, restorative, or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and support equipment by an operating unit is what type of maintenance? 1. Upkeep 2. Rework 3. SDLM 4. Depot 1-8. Scheduled work is performed on an aircraft as a result of its completing a prescribed number of flying hours. What type of maintenance is this? 1. Special upkeep 2. Special rework 3. Standard upkeep 4. Standard rework 1. Intermediate maintenance 2. Upkeep maintenance only 3. Rework maintenance only 4. Rework and upkeep maintenance 1

1-9. The ability of an aircraft to perform its mission was changed by alteration without regard to flying hours. What type of maintenance is this? 1. Special upkeep 2. Special rework 3. Standard upkeep 4. Standard rework 1-10. Aircraft maintenance is divided into what total number of maintenance levels? 1. Five 1. Intermediate-level maintenance 2. Two 2. Organizational-level maintenance 3. Three 3. Special maintenance 4. Four 4. Depot-level maintenance 1-1 1. Centralized local maintenance is performed by which of the following activities? 1. Depot-level activities 2. Contractor plants 3. AIMDs 4. CMAs 1-12. Work performed by an operating unit on a day-to-day basis in support of its own operations is known as what type of maintenance? 1. Intermediate-level maintenance 2. Organizational-level maintenance 3. Special maintenance 4. Depot-level maintenance 1-13. Servicing aircraft and preflight inspections are actions that are performed at what level of maintenance? 1. Depot 2. Special 3. Intermediate 4. Organizational 1-14. Work performed in a centrally located facility within a geographical area is known as what type of maintenance? 1. Special maintenance 2. Depot-level maintenance 3. Intermediate-level maintenance 4. Organizational-level maintenance 1-15. Work performed at an industrial-type facility is known as what type of maintenance? 1-16. The Naval Aviation Maintenance Program is sponsored and directed by what command? 1. NAVSUP 2. CNET 3. CNO 4. DCNO 1-17. Material and technical support for the NAMP are provided by the cognizant systems command and which of the following commands? 1. NAVSUP 2. CNET 3. CNO 4. DCNO 1-18. What type of relationship exists between a superior and a subordinate? 1. Special 2. Staff 3. Management 4. Line 2

1-19. According to directives from higher authority, what officer directs the aircraft maintenance department? 1. The assistant aircraft maintenance officer 2. The aircraft maintenance officer 3. The quality assurance officer 4. The aircraft maintenance division officer 1-20. The functional management responsibilities for the planning, control, and production of the aircraft maintenance department rest with which of the following officers? 1. Assistant aircraft maintenance officer 2. Aircraft division officer 3. Aircraft maintenance officer 4. Quality assurance officer 1-21. Which of the following officers ensures that staff divisions at the organizational level conform to established policies? 1. The assistant aircraft maintenance officer 2. The staff division officer 3. The aircraft maintenance officer 4. The maintenance material control officer 1-22. Assuring that high quality maintenance work is performed is a function of what division in an organizational-level maintenance department? 1. Operations 2. Quality assurance 3. Administration 4. Material control 1-23. Which of the following maintenance concepts allows you to regulate events rather than be regulated by them? 1. Detection 2. Prevention 3. Suppression 4. Correction 1-24. Within an organizational-level maintenance activity, what part of the activity monitors, controls, and applies the MDS? 1. Administration 2. System administrator/analysis 3. Material control 4. Production control 1-25. What officer is directly responsible for the overall production effort and material support of the organizational-level maintenance department? 1. The administration officer 2. The aircraft maintenance officer 3. The maintenance material control officer 4. The quality assurance officer 1-26. What branch or division is known as the nerve center of an organizational-level maintenance department? 1. Material control 2. Maintenance control 3. Aircraft 4. Quality assurance 1-27. The power plants, airframes, and aviator’s life support equipment branches belong to what division of an organizational-level maintenance department? 1. Aircraft 2. Line 3. Avionics/armament 4. Staff 3

1-28. If you work in electronics, instruments, or armament, you are normally assigned to what division of an organizational-level maintenance department? 1. Aircraft 2. Line 3. Avionics/armament 4. Operations 1-29. In an intermediate-level maintenance activity, what is the central point of the maintenance effort? 1. Maintenance material control 2. Maintenance control 3. Quality assurance 4. Production control 1-30. Normally, the intermediate maintenance organization has a total of how many production divisions? 1. Five 2. Six 3. Three 4. Four 1-31. What system provides organizational and intermediate maintenance activities with a computer-based management information system? 1. NADEP 2. NALCOMIS 3. MDS 4 . NAVSUP 1-32. Maintenance managers need current status information to control the maintenance effort. What system is designed to provide maintenance managers with this information? 1. NMCS 2. PMCS 3. VIDS 4. FMCS 1-33. The VIDS boards in each work center are verified with the maintenance control VIDS board a minimum of how often? 1. Once each shift change 2. Twice each day 3. Once each day 4. Once each week 1-34. After the personnel in maintenance control complete the required blocks of a newly initiated VIDS/MAF, copies 1 and 5 are forwarded to 1. quality assurance 2. material control 3. production control 4. the work center 1-35. If a check flight is required after the completion of a corrective action, notification must be given to what individual? 1. The quality assurance division officer 2. The material control supervisor 3. The maintenance material control officer 4. The aircraft maintenance officer 1-36. After a discrepancy has been corrected, what should be done with copies 1 and 5 of the VIDS/MAF? 1. 2. 3. 4. Copy 1 should be sent to quality assurance, and copy 5 is placed in the work center files Copy 1 should be sent to maintenance control, and copy 5 is sent to quality assurance Copy 1 should be sent to maintenance control, and copy 5 is placed in the work center files Copy 1 should be placed in the work center tiles, and copy 5 is sent to maintenance control 4

1-37. At the intermediate level of maintenance, what copies of the VIDS/MAF are forwarded to the work center upon component induction for repair? 1. Copies 1, 2, and 3 2. Copies 2, 3, and 4 3. Copies 1, 4, and 5 4. Copies 1, 3, and 4 1-38. A component goes into an AWP status at the intermediate level of maintenance. What action is completed first with regard to the component? 1. It is stored in the work center 2. It is properly packaged and preserved 3. It is stripped of any usable parts 4. It is returned to the AWP unit 1-39. Information entered on MDS forms must always meet which of the following requirements? 1. Be typed 2. Be entered in pencil 3. Be accurate and complete 4. Be entered in pen 1-40. On-equipment maintenance actions are documented on 1. NALCOMIS or a VIDS/MAF 2. WORK REQUEST or NALCOMIS 3. DCF VIDS/MAF 4. VIDS board 1-41. The portion of an inspection that involves the search for defects is known as what phase? 1. Search 2. Fix 3. Repair 4 . Look 1-42. An organizational code, the Julian date, a sequence number, and a suffix are part of what code or control number? 1. Action Taken code 2. Job control number 3. Sequence control number 4. Work Unit Code 1-43. Maintenance was performed on an item identified by a Work Unit Code. What type of code describes this action? 1. Manufacturer’s 2. JCN 3. Malfunction 4. Action Taken 1-44. What type of code identifies a subassembly repair action that is completed separately from the major component repair action? 1. JCN Suffix 2. Type Equipment 3. support 4. Malfunction 1-45. What type of code identifies the system, specific engine, or component/part on which work is being performed? 1. Transaction code 2. Malfunction Description code 3. Type Equipment code 4. Work Unit Code 1-46. What type of code describes the trouble or cause of trouble in a system or component? 1. Transaction code 2. Action Taken code 3. Malfunction code 4. Work Unit Code 5

1-47. What code is often referred to as the manufacturer’s code? 1. JCN 2. CAGE 3. WUC 4. WCC 1-48. An aircraft has 479 flight hours on it since new. You have just removed and replaced a damaged canopy. What entry should you place in the Time/Cycles block on the VIDS/MAF? 1. E0479 2. A4790 3. A0479 4. E4790 1-49. A Technical Directive Status code consists of how many characters? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 1-50. SE Custody and Maintenance History Record, OPNAV 4790/51, is used for which of the following purposes? 1. To record custody and transfer information 2. To provide rework and overhaul data 3. To identify applicable and incorporated technical directives 4 All of the above 1-5 1. Of the following equipment, which one requires an OPNAV 4790/51 card? 1. PME equipment 2. Engine test cells and stands 3. GB1As 4. VAST stations 1-52. On initiation of each new OPNAV 4790/51, reporting custodians retain the latest processed copy from the permanent custodian. A current copy is also maintained with any accumulated data transcribed to it. 1. True 2. False 1-53. What document provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload? 1. SE Custody and Maintenance History Record 2. VIDS/MAF 3. MDs report 4. Monthly Maintenance Plan 1-54. At the organizational level, what officer sets the format and arrangement of the monthly maintenance plan? 1. The maintenance material control officer 2. The quality assurance officer 3. The aircraft maintenance officer 4. The safety officer 1-55. At the organizational level, the MMP is distributed by what day of the month prior to the month to which it applies? 1. 1st 2. 5th 3. 15th 4. 25th 1-56. Which of the following information is included in the MMP? 1. Current list of QARS 2. High-time components 3. Schedule of technical training 4. Each of the above 6

1-57. To increase technical knowledge levels and enhance and improve existing formal training through diagnostic testing procedures is the primary goal of which of the following programs? 1. PQS 2. MTIP 3. FRAMP 4. NAESU 7

ASSIGNMENT 2 Textbook Assignment: "Publications." Pages 2-1 through 2-40. 2-1. What is the primary purpose of technical publications? 2-2. 1. To train nonmaintenance personnel 2. To replace technical training requirements 3. To help you perform your assigned maintenance 4. To support logistics For a description of the NAVAIR technical manual program, you should refer to what publication? 1. NAVSUP 2002 2. NAVAIR 00-25-100 3. NAVAIR 00-500A 4. NAVAIR 00-500B 2-3. What are the two major types of technical manuals? 1. Operational and maintenance 2. Conventional and work package (WP) 3. Organizational and intermediate 4. Commercial and conventional 2-4. Which of the following format styles can be found in technical manuals? 1. Conventional and work package (WP) 2. Commercial and conventional 3. Simple and complex 4. Organizational and intermediate 2-5. 2-6. 2-7. 2-8. 2-9. The format of a publication should be designed to improve which of the following key aspects? 1. Readability 2. Reproduction of pages 3. Replacement of page changes 4. Usability Each work package of a work package type of manual contains all information required to perform a specific task on an aircraft system. 1. True 2. False Where does the WP identification number appear on a page in a WP manual? 1. Top center 2. Top left comer 3. Top right comer 4. Bottom center A WP number consists of what total number of digits? 1. 12 2. 10 3. 8 4. 5 Technical manuals are updated by what means? 1. Changes and revisions 2. Notices 3. RACs 4. Difference data sheets 8

2-10. What technical publication update method 2-14. What method is used to incorporate a minor involves the complete reissue of a design change to equipment without replacement manual with all change making a direct impact on the existing information incorporated? information contained in a manual? 1. RAC 2. Revision 3. Notice 4. Change 2-11. Technical Publication Deficiency Reports (TPDRs) usually result from fleet inputs that include changes for which of the following reasons? 1. To correct user-detected errors 2. To improve verbiage 3. To incorporate a “better way” 4. Each of the above 2-12. Which of the following numbers indicates a illustration has been added to a maintenance manual because of an issued change? 1. 2-1B 2. 2-1.1 3. 2-Bl 4. 2.1-1 2-13. Which of the following occurrences in a manual does NOT require an associated change symbol? 1. Blank spaces resulting from the deletion of text material 2. Relocation of material that changes procedures of an inspection 3. Incorporation of a part on an illustration 4. New material on an added page 1. Revision 2. Change 3. Difference data sheet 4. Rapid action change 2-15. In a WP manual, what information is contained in the numerical index of effective WPs? 1. All changed pages only 2. All deleted WPs only 3. All revised WPs only 4. All changed, revised, added, or deleted WPs 2-16. A change symbol in a WP manual is required for changes to which of the following elements? 1. IPB illustrations 2. Diagrams only 3. Line drawings only 4. Diagrams, line drawings, and illustrations 2-17. A NAVAlR manual number consists of what parts? 1. A letter prefix and one additional part 2. A numerical prefix and two additional parts 3. A letter prefix and three additional parts 4. A numerical prefix and four additional parts 2-18. What is identified by part I of the publication number? 1. The general subject classification 2. The type of manual 3. The category of manual 4. The group of manual 9

2-19. What portion of NAVAIR publication number NAVAIR 01-75PAC-1 specifies the type aircraft and the manufacturer of the aircraft to which the publication applies? 1. 01-75 only 2. 75PAC only 3. 01-75PAC 4. PAC-1 2-20. What portion of NAVAIR publication number NAVAIR 0l-85AD-1 signifies the publication is a NATOPS manual? 1. 01 2. -85AD 3. -1 4. AD-l 2-21. The purpose of the TMINS is to meet the requirements of all systems commands to obtain what standardized information concerning technical manuals and changes? 1. Identification only 2. Referencing only 3. Requisitioning only 4. Identification, referencing, and requisitioning 2-22. TMINS numbers for manuals are patterned after what numbering system? 1. National Stock Number System 2. Subject Serial Number 3. Standard Subject Classification Code 4. Unit Identification System 2-23. The publication identifier (PI) is the root of the TMINS number. It contains a total of how many characters? 2-24. What information is identified by the first seven characters of the PI? 1. The technical manual 2. The Standard Subject Classification code 3. The subject serial number 4. The hardware or subject identifier 2-25. What information is identified by the frost letter in the PI? 1. The subject serial number 2. The responsible command 3. The type of manual 4. The Standard Subject Classification code 2-26. What information is identified by the second group of characters in the PI? 1. The subject serial number 2. The responsible command 3. The type of manual 4. The Standard Subject Classification code 2-27. What information is identified by the third group of characters in the PI? 1. The subject serial number 2. The responsible command 3. The type of manual 4. The Standard Subject Classification code 2-28. The first group of characters in the technical manual identifier consists of three letters or numbers. This group is known as the TM 1. 13 2. 12 3. 11 4. 10 1. issue 2. identifier 3. serial number 4. acronym 10

2-29. 2-30. 2-31. 2-32. The third group of characters in the technical manual identifier consists of a single number or letter. It is known as the TM 1. issue 2. identifier 3. serial number 4. acronym TIMINS identifies classified publications by what means? 1. Total PI composition 2. The PI prefix 3. The PI subject serial number 4 . The PI suffix What manual gives a comprehensive explanation of the TMINS? 1. NAVAIR 00-500AV 2. NAVAIR 00-500B 3. M0000-00/TMINS 4. N0000-00-IDX-000/TMS Which section of the MIM covers component repair procedures for intermediate-level maintenance? 1. Section I 2. Section II 3. Section III 4. Section IV IN ANSWERING QUESTION 2-33, REFER TO FIGURE 2-18 IN THE TEXTBOOK. 2-33. In which callout of figure 2-18 is information found on specific tools other than standard items to perform maintenance? 1. Callout A 2. Callout B 3. Callout C 4. Callout D 2-34. For which of the following reasons are sections of MIMs now issued as separate publications under individual identifying numbers? 1. Less expensive to produce 2. Easier to use only 3. Easier procurement, storage, filing, and use 4. Easier replacement 2-35. A listing of weapons systems component parts keyed to illustrations is provided in what type of manual? 1. Maintenance Instruction Manual 2. Structural Repair Manual 3. Illustrated Parts Breakdown manual 4. Aircraft Maintenance Manual 2-36. All aeronautical publications, changes, technical directives, and forms issued by NAVAIRSYSCOM are cataloged in the Naval Aeronautic Publications Index (NAPI). 1. True 2. False 2-37. The Naval Aeronautic Publications Index (NAPI) consists of how many sections? 1. Six 2. Two 3. Eight 4. Four 2-38. What aircraft maintenance division normally maintains a complete NAPI? 1. Maintenance material control 2. Administration 3. Quality assurance 4. Armament 11

2-39. For more in-depth information concerning 2-43. What NAVAIR manual contains basic the NAPI, you should refer to which of the structural repair data common to all following publications? aircraft? 1. NAVAIR 00-25-100 2. NAVAIR 00-80T-96 3. NAVAIR 01-1A-540 4. NAVAIR 0l -85ADC-1 2-40. What series of manuals covers standard aviation maintenance practices that apply to all aircraft? 1. -1 2. 01-1A 3. 01-1B 4. -8 2-41. Large, high-density avionics aircraft with computer-controlled, integrated weapons systems use what type of manual to aid the aircrew in maintaining large analysis and single flow data? 1. Structural repair manual 2. Support equipment manual 3. NATOPS manuals 4. Crew station manuals 2-42. Large, high-density avionics aircraft with computer-controlled, integrated weapons systems use what type of manual to help the aircrew troubleshoot and repair equipment to maintain mission capability while still airborne? 1. Structural repair manual 2. Support equipment manual 3. NATOPS manuals 4. In-flight maintenance manual 1. NAVAIR 00-25-100 2. NAVAIR 01-1A-1 3. NAVAIR 01-1A-540 4. NAVAIR 01-85ADC-1 2-44. When you see a publication numbered NAVAIR XX-XXX-4, you know that this manual is of what type? 1. Maintenance Instruction Manual 2. Illustrated Parts Breakdown 3. Structural Repair Manual 4. Work Unit Code Manual 2-45. The Planned Maintenance System publications consist of what type or types of cards or charts? 1. MRCs only 2. PMICs only 3. SCCs only 4. MRCs, PMICs, and SSCs 2-46. What PMS publication provides information in an abbreviated walkaround order to aid personnel when they inspect aircraft surfaces? 1. Turnaround checklist 2. Daily MRC 3. Phase maintenance requirements cards 4. Periodic maintenance information Cards 2-47. What safety publication contains information and guidelines on acceptable work place safety and health standards ashore? 1. OPNAVINST 3750.6 2. OPNAVINST 5100.23 3. NAVAIR A1-NAOSH-SAF- 000/P5100-1 4. NAVAIR 00-25-100 12

2-48. A technical directive change directs the accomplishment and recording of a material change, a repositioning, a modification, or an alteration in the characteristics of the equipment to which it applies. 1. True 2. False 2-49. A technical directive that is issued to clarify, add to, delete from, make a minor requirement change, or cancel an existing technical directive is known as what type of technical directive? 1. Bulletin 2. Change 3. Revision 4. Amendment 2-50. Which of the following symbols designates the second revision to a TD? 1. Rev. 1 2. Rev. 2 3. Rev. A 4. Rev. B 2-51. A technical directive is issued to correct a safety condition that could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel. What type of technical directive is this? 1. Routine 2. Immediate action 3. Urgent 4. Record purpose 2-52. The overall management of the technical library is a function of what activity or individual? 1. Quality assurance division 2. Commanding officer 3. Central library supervisor 4. Material control division 2-53. 2-54. 2-55. 2-56. 2-57. 13 What form does the dispersed librarian sign to indicate the receipt of a publication change from the central library? 1. DD Form 1348 2. NWPL (OPNAV Form 5070/11) 3. CECR (OPNAV Form 5070/12) 4. OPNAV Form 4790/66 Routine deficiencies in technical publications are reported via OPNAV Form 4790/66 to what command or commands? 1. CNO 2. NATSF only 3. CFA only 4. NATSF and CFA When an activity with a central library has other libraries within the command, dispersed technical publications libraries (DTPLs), what organizational element of the activity manages these libraries? 1. The CTPL 2. QA 3. Admin 4. Material control At least how often does QA audit the CTPL? 1. Monthly 2. Quarterly 3. Biannually 4. Annually Information about discrepancies or change recommendations of a routine nature on the technical content of a NATOPS should be submitted on what form? 1. OPNAV Form 4790/66 2. OPNAV Form 4790/12 3. OPNAV Form 5300/32 4. OPNAV Form 3500/22

ASSIGNMENT 3 Textbook Assignment: "Aviation Supply." Pages 3-1 through 3-26. 3-1. Which of the following numbers is a supply Project code? 3-5. Which of the following numbers is listed first in an alphanumeric parts listing? 1. 6RX-4920-00-237-97934X 1. 899T1384 2. AN6227-7 2. AN6437 3. AK7 3. 216849 4. 63425 4. 0836948 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-2 AND 3-3, REFER TO TABLE 3-1 IN THE TEXT. 3-6. Which of the following part numbers follows sequence number 08643759 in an alphanumeric listing? 3-2. Your squadron is categorized as a FAD II activity and you require a mission essential part. What is the highest priority that can be assigned to your request? 1. 943762 2. P46843 3. ZB4738 4. 064795 1. 1 2. 2 3. 7 4. 13 3-7. What type of code identifies the agent or agency that has design control over an item? 3-3. When a FAD III is assigned to your 1. CAGE activity, what is the highest priority you 2. H4/H8 should use to order routine replenishment 3. MCRL stock? 4. ML-N 1. 5 2. 2 3. 10 4. 13 3-8. Which of the following is a purpose of an illustrated parts breakdown? 3-4. Information from which of the following sources is used by supply department personnel as justification for stocking material? 1. Forecasted flights 2. Usage statistics 3. Management decisions 4. Monthly maintenance plans 1. To allow supply and maintenance personnel to identify and order replacement parts for aircraft or equipment 2. To determine interchangeables, next higher assemblies, and repairables 3. To determine source codes, CAGES, and source of supply 4. To determine units used for assembly and aircraft bureau number application 14

3-9. 3-10. 3-11. 3-12. 3-13. What section in an IPB contains general information and instructions for using the publication? 1. Introduction 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Alphabetical index Besides the introduction, each IPB includes which of the following information? 1. Table of contents or alphabetic index 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Each of the above What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the source or SM&R codes used in the IPB? 1. Introduction 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Alphabetical index What listing in the IPB lists aircraft assemblies and identifies the pages or figure numbers where the assemblies are shown in the IPB? 1. Alphabetical index 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Introduction What section of the IPB contains a description of a component listed in the IPB? 1. Introduction 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Alphabetical index 3-14. What section of the IPB lists supplementary handbooks to which you may refer? 1. Introduction 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Alphabetical index 3-15. What is the purpose of an index number in an IPB? 1. To describe a major component 2. To establish the relationship between parts in the illustration and the corresponding parts list 3. To identify items procured from a commercial source 4. To provide a reference number IN ANSWERING QUESTION 3-16, REFER TO FIGURE 3-2 IN THE TEXT. 3-16. In what figure can the next higher assembly for the flow regulator be found? 1. 037-00 2. 019-00 3. 029-00 4. 046-00 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-17 THROUGH 3-24, REFER TO FIGURE 3-4 IN THE TEXTBOOK. 3-17. Which of the following is a description of the units per assembly (callout 5 of figure 3-4)? 1. The column number in which the nomenclature of the item begins 2. The relationship of one part to another 3. A specific quantity has not been established 4. The aircraft bureau number on which the item can be used 15

3-18. 3-19. 3-20. 3-21. 3-22. Find index No. 5. A total of how many screws (part number MS27039-1-22) are used on the bracket assembly? 1. 5 2. 2 3. 12 4. 4 Find index No. 9. Where must the maintenanceman refer to for wheel assembly, NLG (part number 3-1328) required per aircraft? 1. The table of contents 2. The numerical index 3. Figure 046-00 in the IPB 4. The Usable-on Code index Find index No. 7. The fitting assembly (part number A51G10561-1) can be used on an aircraft with which of the following bureau numbers? 1. 148885 2. 153499 3. 159874 4. 152719 What is the Commercial and Government Entity (CAGE) code for part number 2577818-011E<F? 1. 552847 2. 671361-101 3. 3-1089 4. 28 x 7.7 What is the Usable-On code for Index No. 2? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 3-23. 3-24. 3-25. 3-26. What is the SM&R code for the NLG shock strut? 1. PAOZZ 2. MDOZZ 3. XCOOO 4. PAOOD What is the description of part number MS21042L3? 1. Screw 2. Nut 3. Bracket 4. Light You need to order a replacement component for an aircraft, and you do not know the part number of the item. Which of the following basic information should you be able to provide the AK so that he or she can research the IPB? 1. Type of aircraft on which the part was installed 2. The component on which the part was installed 3. The bureau number of the aircraft from which the part was removed 4. All of the above An SM&R code is a five- or six-position alphanumeric code. 1. True 2. False 16

IN ANSWERING QUESTION 3-27, REFER TO FIGURE 3-5 IN THE TEXTBOOK. 3-27. What part of a part’s SM&R code indicates how the part is to be acquired? 1. Source code only 2. Maintenance code only 3. Recoverability code only 4. Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability codes 3-28. What position of the SM&R code identifies 3-32. What ASO publication contains a complete the maintenance level assigned to list of Navy-managed material that is completely repair an item? classified as MTR? 1. First 2. Second 3. Fourth 4. Fifth 3-29. What information does the third position of an SM&R code provide? 1. The highest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item 2. The maintenance level authorized to completely repair an item 3. The lowest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item 4. The Service Option code that applies 3-30. What two instructions govern policies, procedures, and definitions applicable to SM&R codes? 1. OPNAVINST 4790.2 and NAVSUPINST 4440.16 2. NAVSUPINST 4423.14 and NAVAIRINST 4423.3 3. OPNAVINST 4440.25 and NAVSUPINST 7300.6 4. NAVSUPINST 4700.16 and NAVAIRINST 4410.4 3-31. When removal of a component from an aircraft is not feasible or advisable until a replacement is on hand, supply personnel can exempt the turn-in of the component (retrograde) if its part number is listed in what document? 1. LIRSH 2. CRIPL 3. MCRL 4. MESSM 1. CRIPL 2. MRIL 3. IMRL 4. ML-N 3-33. What type of material is listed in the CRIPL? 1. Material essential for flight operations 2. Material exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule 3. Material considered hazardous 4. Material subject to deterioration after a specified time 3-34. The reference number on a master cross- reference list refers to what number or numbers? 1. Manufacturer’s part number only 2. Drawing numbers only 3. Drawing number and design control number only 4. Either a manufacture’s part number, a drawing number, or a design control number 17

3-35. The MCRL is used to provide a cross- reference between what items of information? 1. Noun name and CAGE 1. MRIL3 2. CAGE and NIIN 2. CRIPL 3. NIIN and item number 3. ASG 4. Reference number and NSN 4. ML-N 3-36. What is the purpose of the ICRL-A? 1. To cross-reference numbers to NSNs 2. To provide squadrons with a list of NSNs that are exempt from the one- for-one turn-in rule 3. To provide a list of repairables and the local IMA's capability to repair them 4. To cross-reference CAGES to reference numbers 3-37. An ICRL-A is revised at what specified interval? 1. Annually 2. Biannually 3. Quarterly 4. Monthly 3-38. What ICRL Capability code is used for check and test only? 1. Z1 2. X2 3. C1 4. A1 3-39. Within the ICRL listing, what code is equivalent to Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM)-3? 1. X1 2. X2 3. X3 4. X6 3-40. To what reference should you refer to obtain an NSN or reference number for an item when you only know the description? 3-41. What is the 13–digit number called that identifies an item of material in the supply system? 1. NSN 2. NIIN 3. FSC 4. SMIC 3-42. What is the title of the overall program that provides the data required for effective management of support equipment at all levels of maintenance? 1. ICRL 2. IMRL 3. AMMRL 4. AVCAL 3-43. What command exercises overall program management for the AMMRL program? 1. ASO 2. NAVAIRSYSCOM 3. NAVAIRENGCEN 4. NAMO 3-44. What information is provided by the first two digits in the FSC code number? 1 . The FSC group 2. The major or broad category of the stock 3. Manager that controls the category of material 4. The detailed breakdown of a category of material 18

3-45. The NSN is comprised of what total number of digits? 1. 15 2. 16 3. 17 4. 13 3-46. Which of the following acronyms identifies equipment that is required on the ground to make a system, subsystem, or end item of equipment operational? 1. IMRL 2. ATE 3. GFE 4. SE 3-47. Within an activity, personnel in what rating normally maintain the IMRL? 1. AZ 2. AK 3. AS 4. AD 3-48. The IMRL contains how many major sections? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 5 3-49. At the organizational maintenance level, the point of contact for all material requirements generated by a squadron is located in what organization? 1. Material control center 2. ASD/SSC 3. AIMD 4. Production control 3-50. What Material Condition code tells you that an item of supply is fast moving and in high demand? 1. F 2. I 3. O 4. S 3-51. To determine whether an intermediate maintenance activity has capability to test/check or repair an item, what I-level supply area screens all components turned into ASD/SSC? 1. AMSU 2. SRS 3. CCS 4. SUADPS 3-52. The ASD/SSC is composed of what section or sections? 1. CCS only 2. SRS only 3. SRS and CCS 4. ASD 3-53. The SRS limits the quantity of any item in the pre-expended bin to a 30-day supply. 1. True 2. False 3-54. Within an activity, what officer must approve the item of PEB stockage when it costs more than $150? 1. The supply officer 2. The aviation maintenance officer 3. The division officer 4. The commanding officer 19

3-55. Supply will remove an item from the PEB if there has been no demand for the item within what total period of time? 1. 1 month 2. 6 months 3. 3 months 4. 12 months 3-56. What is the purpose of the component control section within the supply department? 1. To manage the LRCA at the ASD/SSC 2. To account for all repairables 3. To operate the rotable pool 4. To operate as a storage unit 3-57. A LRCA is assigned a workload priority. The priority assigned is one of what total number of priorities that can be assigned to the LRCA? 1. Two 2. Three 3. Four 4. Five 3-58. An aircraft is in NMCS/PMCS status. What priority is assigned to LRCA in support of this aircraft? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 20

ASSIGNMENT 4 Textbook Assignment: “Corrosion Control.” Pages 4-1 through 4-58. 4-1. What is the greatest threat to the structural integrity of an aircraft? 1. Aircraft design 2. Aircraft weight 3. Metal corrosion 4. Metal composition 4-2. Corrosion is detrimental to the integrity of an aircraft. It alters the structure of the materials that make up the aircraft in what manner? 1. Reduction in strength only 2. Change in mechanical characteristics only 3. Reduction in strength and change in mechanical characteristics 4-3. 4. Decreases aerodynamic efficiency The materials used in the construction of an aircraft are chosen according to their 1. cost 2. availability 3. corrosion-resistant properties, 4. weight-to-strength ratio 4-4. Metal corrosion is defined as the deterioration of metal as it combines with which of the following elements? 1. Nitrogen 2. Argon 3. Oxygen 4. Helium 4-5. 4-6. 4-7. On naval aircraft, what materials are used most often to separate susceptible alloys from the corrosive environment? 1. Shrouds 2. Paints 3. Sealants 4. Preservatives Which of the following is a description of the flow of electrons during electrochemical attack of a metal? 1. Electrons flow from the anodic area to the cathodic area, resulting in the deterioration of the anodic area 2. Electrons flow from the anodic area to the cathodic area, resulting in the deterioration of the cathodic area 3. Electrons flow from the cathodic area to the anodic area, resulting in the deterioration of the cathodic area 4. Electrons flow from the cathodic area to the anodic area, resulting in the deterioration of the anodic area Which of the following conditions are factors in the electrochemical reaction that causes metals to corrode? 1. Heat and humidity only 2. Heat and moisture only 3. Moisture and humidity only 4. Heat, humidity, and moisture 21

4-8. 4-9. 4-10. 4-11. 4-12. Because of variations in their composition, which of the following aircraft surfaces is the most susceptible to corrosive attack? 1. Alclad 2. Nonclad 3. Thin structural 4. Thick structural Which of the following conditions is the single greatest contributor to avionics corrosion? 1. Heat 2. Moisture 3. Stray voltage 4. Incomplete circuits Which of the following publications provides information on aircraft corrosion control for organizational-level maintenance? 1. NAVAIR 01-1A-509 2. NAVAIR 15-01-500 3. NAVAIR 16-l-540 4. NAVAIR 15-02-500 Which of the following publications provides information on aircraft cleaning? 1. NAVAIR 01-1A-509 2. NAVAIR 16-l-540 3. NAVAIR 15-02-500 4. NAVAIR 15-01-500 Which of the following publications provides information on avionics cleaning and corrosion prevention and control? 1. NAVAIR 15-01-500 2. NAVAIR 15-02-500 3. NAVAIR 01-1A-507 4. NAVAIR 16-l-540 4-13. Which of the following publications provides information on the preservation of aircraft engines? 1. NAVAIR 15-01-500 2. NAVAIR 01-1A-518 3. NAVAIR 01-1A-507 4. NAVAIR 16-l-540 4-14. Which of the following publications provides information on the preservation of naval aircraft? 1. NAVAIR 15-01-500 2. NAVAIR 01-1A-507 3. NAVAIR 01-1A-509 4. NAVAIR 15-02-500 4-15. Which of the following publications provides information on the general use of cements, sealants, and coatings used on aircraft? 1. NAVAIR 15-01-500 2. NAVAIR 01-1A-509 3. NAVAIR 01-1A-507 4. NAVAIR 16-l-540 4-16. When carrier-based aircraft are transferred to shore activities, what happens to the scope of most corrosion preventive programs? 1. It decreases 2. It increases 3. It remains the same 4. It is canceled 4-17. Normally, aircraft squadrons with the best corrosion preventive programs have which of the following benefits? 1. The best safety records 2. The most use of the aircraft 3. The lowest operating costs 4. All of the above 22

4-18. As directed by NAVAIR, aircraft deployed aboard an aircraft carrier will be washed and cleaned a minimum of how often? 1. Every 7 days 2. Every 10 days 3. Every 14 days 4. Every 28 days 4-19. Mandatory aircraft cleaning is always required after an aircraft is exposed to which of the following substances? 1. Fire-extinguishing materials splashed on the landing gear 2. Alkaline cleaning solution splashed on the wings 3. Exhaust deposits on the aft fuselage 4. Rocket blast deposits on the forward fuselage 4-20. Unpainted surface of struts and actuating cylinder rods should be cleaned or wiped down at what prescribed interval? 1. Daily 2. Twice weekly 3. Weekly 4. Twice monthly 4-21. When handling, using, and storing aircraft cleaning materials, what is/are the most serious hazard(s) you will meet? 1. Heat expansion 2. Flammability only 3. Toxicity only 4. Flammability and toxicity 4-22. When using hazardous chemicals, you should wear which of the following protective devices? 1. Gloves and aprons only 2. A face shield only 3. An approved respirator only 4. Gloves and aprons, a face shield, and an approved respirator 4-23. Solvents must be kept in specially marked containers if they contain more than what percent by volume of chlorinated materials? 1. 8% 2. 10% 3. 12% 4. 24% 4-24. When volatile and flammable materials are not being used, they should be stored in which of the following areas? 1. In a metal cruise box inside the corrosion control work spaces 2. Inside a separate locker in the material control spaces 3. Inside a separate building or flammable liquids storeroom 4. Inside a designated hangar space 4-25. What solvent is generally used as an all- purpose cleaner in naval aviation maintenance? 1. Methyl ethyl ketone 2. Aliphatic naptha 3. Aromatic naphtha 4. Dry-cleaning solvent 4-26. Which of the following solvents is an alternate compound for cleaning acrylics? 1. Methyl ethyl ketone 2. Aliphatic naphtha 3. Aromatic naphtha 4. Ammonium hydroxide 4-27. Safety solvent is intended for use when a high flash point is required. You should NOT use safety solvent to clean which of the following areas of an aircraft? 1. Oxygen systems 2. Avionic/electrical systems 3. Disassembled/assembled engine components 4. Wheel bearing and brake components 23

4-28. To neutralize the effects of urine and waste products in the lavatories of aircraft, you should use which of the following cleaning agents? 1. Dry-cleaning solvent 2. Aircraft surface cleaning compound 3. Ammonium hydroxide or sodium bicarbonate 4. Sodium phosphate 4-29. In an intermediate maintenance activity, an avionics/electrical maintenance branch that operates a “clean room” should use what type of MIL-C-81302 Freon cleaner? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV 4-30. To produce a high-luster, long-lasting polish on an unpainted aluminum clad surface, you should use what mechanical cleaner? 1. Powdered pumice 2. Fine aluminum wool 3. Aluminum metal polish 4. Abrasive-impregnated cotton wadding 4-31. Which of the following devices should you use to perform a fast and economical cleaning of an aircraft? 1. Cotton mops 2. Conformable applicators 3. Bristle brushes 4. Ajax speed wipes 4-32. There are several steps that you must take before you can actually clean an aircraft. Which of the steps listed below is the first one you should take? 1. 2. 3. 4. Select the correct cleaning agent for the method of cleaning that you will use Ground the aircraft, close the canopy, and secure all doors Park the aircraft in the shade or beneath an overhead shelter, if possible Cover or plug all ducts and openings where cleaning fluid or water could be trapped 4-33. Which of the following cleaning compounds should be used to clean an aircraft that is painted with the tactical paint system? 1. MIL-C-25769 2. MIL-C-43616 3. MIL-C-81309 4. MIL-C-85570 THIS SPACE LEFT BLANK INTENTIONALLY. 24

IN ANSWERING QUESTION 4-34, REFER TO FIGURE 4-6 IN THE TEXTBOOK. 4-34. To ensure complete cleaning and rinsing of all aircraft surfaces, you should use which of the following washing sequences? 1. Upper tail and fuselage sections, upper wing surfaces, lower fuselage and tail, lower wing surfaces 2. Lower surfaces in any sequence followed by upper surfaces in any sequence that will result in adequate rinsing 3. Underside of wings, underside of fuselage and tail, upper wing and fuselage center section, upper surfaces of fuselage and tail section, including vertical stabilizer 4. Underside of wings, fuselage, and tail in that order, spraying water from the wing tips and fuselage ends, inboard to center, followed by the same sequence on the upper surfaces 4-35. Surfaces that are lightly soiled with oil may be spot-cleaned by wiping them with which of the following substances? 1. Dry-cleaning solvent 2. Grade IV paralketone 3. Methyl ethyl ketone 4. Aromatic naphtha 4-36. In an emergency when an aircraft is without a regular waterproof canvas cover, suitable covering and shrouding may be accomplished by the use of which of the following materials? 1. Polyethylene sheet only 2. Polyethylene-coated cloth only 3. Metal foil barrier material only 4. Polyethylene sheet, polyethylene- coated cloth, and metal foil barrier material 4-37. Where should you place the cowling and access panels when they are removed during a maintenance task? 1. On the wings near the fuselage 2. On the deck under the fuselage 3. On a work stand near the aircraft 4. On a pad or secure them to the aircraft 4-38. The size and composition of an emergency reclamation team is determined by which of the following criteria? 1. Location of the squadron 2. Size of the squadron 3. Urgency of the situation 4. Availability of qualified personnel 4-39. Under which of the following conditions is an aircraft most susceptible to a corrosive attack? 1. When it is not being flown only 2. When it is in shipment only 3. When it is not being flown or when it is in shipment 4. When it is being flown 4-40. How many levels of preservation methods are used on naval aircraft? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 4-41. Level III preservation is used to preserve aircraft for what situation? 1. Long-term storage 2. Short-term storage 3. Ocean shipment 4. Periodic maintenance 25

4-42. Level I preservation should be applied to an aircraft when it is out-of-service for more than what minimum number of days? 1. 7 2. 14 3. 28 4. 30 4-43. Which of the following publications contains the requirements for Level I preservation? 1. MIM 2. IPB 3. Special PMIC 4. Special MRC 4-44. Which of the following is the main disadvantage of grade IV corrosion preventive compound (paralketone)? 1. It forms an opaque cover 2. It is difficult to remove by water spray 3. It forms a dark, hard film 4. It is easily removed by water spray 4-45. What preservative compound should be used to provide protection for shock struts? 1. Preservative hydraulic oil, MIL-H- 46170 2. Corrosion-preventive petroleum, class 3 3. Lubricating oil, general-purpose preservative, VV-L-800 4. Corrosion-preventive compound, solvent cutback, grade 1 4-46. Piano-wire hinges require lubricating and corrosion protection. What water- displacing, low-temperature, lubricating oil should you use? 1. Preservative hydraulic oil, MIL-H- 46170 2. Lubricating oil, general-purpose, preservative, VV-L-800 3. Engine preservative oil, MIL-L-23699 4. General lubricating oil, MIL-L-7870 4-47. You should use corrosion preventive compound MIL-C-81309, type III, on which of the following equipment? 1. Avionic and electrical equipment 2. Hydraulic system equipment 3. Engine fuel control systems 4. Ejection seat mechanisms 4-48. Which of the following is a laminated metal-foil material used for the protection of acrylics during cleaning? 1. Polyethylene plastic film 2. Polyethylene coating cloth 3. Water vaporproof barrier material 4 . Kraft paper 4-49. You should check for corrosion and deterioration during which of the following routine inspections? 1. Daily only 2. Phase only 3. Postflight only 4. Daily, phase, and postflight 26

4-50. Corrosion may occur in several forms, depending on which of the following factors? 1. Metal involved only 2. Atmospheric conditions only 3. Corrosion-producing agents present only 4. Metal involved, atmospheric conditions, and corrosion-producing agents present A. Direct surface attack B. Pitting corrosion C. Crevice attack D. Intergranular corrosion E. Exfoliation corrosion F. Fretting corrosion G. Fatigue corrosion H. Galvanic corrosion I. Filiform corrosion J. Microbiological corrosion Figure 4-A IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-51 THROUGH 4-60, CHOOSE THE FORM OF CORROSION FROM FIGURE 4-A THAT FITS THE DESCRIPTION OF THE CORROSION USED AS THE QUESTION. EACH FORM OF CORROSION IS USED AS AN ANSWER ONLY ONCE. 4-51. Threadlike filaments that form under organic substances (such as paint film). 1. A 2. C 3. F 4. I 4-52. Fungus growths on the sealing materials of integral fuel tanks. 1. J 2. F 3. D 4. B 4-53. Slipping movement between two mating metal surfaces. 1. C 2. E 3. F 4. I 4-54. Uniform etching of the metal surfaces. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. G 4-55. Shallow indentations or deep cavities of small diameter that form on metal surfaces. 1. I 2. H 3. E 4. B 4-56. Caused by the difference in concentration of the electrolyte or the active metal on the anode and cathode. 1. A 2. C 3. G 4. J 4-57. Corrosive attack along the grain boundaries of a metal alloy. 1. C 2. D 3. I 4. J 4-58. Metal fractures caused by the combined effects of corrosion and stress applied in cycles to a part. 1. G 2. F 3. E 4. D 27

4-59. Dissimilar metals in contact in a corrosive medium, such as salt water. 1. B 2. D 3. E 4. H 4-60. Lifting up of the metal surface caused by the force of expanding corrosion products occurring at the grain boundaries just below the metal surface. 1. E 2. F 3. G 4. H 4-61. To identify all the corrosion-prone areas of your squadron’s aircraft, you should refer to which of the following publications? 1. Applicable NATOPS manual 2. Applicable periodic maintenance information cards (PMICS) 3. Aircraft Cleaning and Corrosion Control Manual 4. Maintenance requirements cards (MRCs) 4-62. When avionic and structural corrosion is compared, which of the following effects is the main difference between avionic and structural corrosion? 1. Avionics systems do not have as many areas in which moisture can be trapped 2. Corrosion is not as difficult to detect in avionic systems 3. Small amounts of corrosion can make avionic systems inoperable 4. Avionic components are more corrosion resistant 4-63. Before performing any maintenance on avionic or electrical systems, you should make sure that you have completed which of the following actions? 1. Ground the aircraft 2. Check and tie down the aircraft 3. Secure all external electrical power 4. Install all covers and shrouds 4-64. What type of corrosion is usually found around electrical bonding and grounding straps? 1. Filiform 2. Galvanic 3. Microbiological 4. Stress 4-65. You are inspecting an aircraft ejection seat. It is very important that even the slightest indication of corrosion be found for which of the following reasons? 1. Corrosion can weaken the structural soundness of the seat 2. Slight amounts of corrosion may indicate other problems that are not visible 3. Slight amounts of corrosion may cause the seat to be inoperable 4. Each of the above 4-66. When inspecting engine frontal areas and cooling air vents, what type of discrepancy(ies) are you likely to find? 1. Galvanic corrosion 2. Stress corrosion cracking 3. Dirt, dust, gravel, and rain erosion 4. Intergranular, filiform, and fatigue corrosion 28

4-67. One corrosion-prone area of an aircraft is 4-70. What is the purpose of chemically treating the bilge area. What condition is the best a surface after the removal of corrosion insurance against corrosion in this area? products? 1. A good, intact paint system in the bilge area 2. A clean, dry bilge area 3. Adequate supply of drain holes in the bilge area 4. Frequent inspections of the bilge area 4-68. Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding the dry honing machine? 1. 2. 3. 4. It is the only approved blasting method of removing corrosion on assembled aircraft Metal removal can be held to closer limits May be used on any aircraft skin or surface May be used in either shipboard or shore-based operations 4-69. Corrosion damage limits refer to the amount of metal that may be removed from a corroded part without impairing the strength and function of the part. 1. To protect the metal in place of paint 2. To increase the surfaces resistance to corrosion 3. To improve the paint bond to the surface 4. Both 2 and 3 above 4-71. Which of the following statements is true about aircraft painting and touch-up? 1. 2. 3. 4. The primary objective of any paint finish is to reduce the glare by nonspecular coatings Repainting should not be done for appearance sake only A faded paint finish indicates poor corrosion prevention and should be repainted White or light colored, high gloss finishes induce heat absorption 1. True 2. False 29

ASSIGNMENT 5 Textbook Assignment: "Line Operations and Special Programs." Pages 5-1 through 5-35. 5-1. When you are assigned to the line division, what person becomes your department head? 1. The line division officer 2. The commanding officer 3. The aircraft maintenance officer 4. The line division chief petty officer 5-5. Whenever a technician other than the plane captain performs portions of a daily/turnaround inspection on an aircraft, the plane captain is relieved of all responsibility for that aircraft. 1. True 2. False 5-2. A troubleshooter must possess which of the following skills and/or knowledges? 5-6. Which of the following is a list of the qualities that a plane captain must possess? 1. Skill as a technical advisor to the plane 1. Technical competence, a sense of captain only responsibility, and personal integrity 2. Knowledgeable in line operations only 2. Mechanical aptitude, personal 3. Knowledgeable in flight line safety integrity, and motivation only 3. Technical competence, personal 4. Skill as a technical advisor to the plane integrity, and mathematical aptitude captain and be knowledgeable in line 4. Mechanical aptitude, mathematical operations and flight line safety aptitude, and motivation 5-3. Normally, what percentage of the total personnel assigned to the line division are assigned to the plane captain branch? 5-7. Smoking is not permitted within how many feet of an aircraft during fueling operations? 1. Between 15 and 35 percent 2. Between 35 and 55 percent 3. Between 55 and 75 percent 4. Between 75 and 95 percent 1. 25 ft 2. 50 ft 3. 75 ft 4. 100 ft 5-4. What is the final step in becoming a qualified plane captain? 5-8. Only approved explosion proof lights can be brought within what specified distance of the refueling operations? 1. Be designated in writing by the commanding officer 2. Be in the line division for the specified time interval 3. Pass a written test 4. Pass an oral test 1. 10 ft 2. 20 ft 3. 30 ft 4. 50 ft 30

5-9. 5-10. 5-11. 5-12. During fueling operations, a small amount of fuel is accidentally spilled. What action should be taken? 1. The spill should be contained, and then removed once fueling is completed 2. The spill should be contained and removed immediately 3. A fire guard should be posted near the spill with fire- extinguishing equipment 4. Fire authorities should be notified of the spill at once A plane captain gets fuel in his eyes during fueling operations. What action should the plane captain take? 1. Get medical attention immediately 2. After fueling operations are completed, get medical attention 3. Flush his eyes with water, then get medical attention 4. After fueling operations are completed, notify his or her immediate supervisor How are aircraft wings and stabilizers marked in areas that should NOT be used as walkways? 1. They are painted black 2. They are painted yellow 3. They are marked "NO STEP" 4. They are marked "DO NOT WALK" An aircraft is being refueled by truck. What is the minimum distance from the truck that a radar set may be operated? 1. 25 ft 2. 50 ft 3. 75 ft 4. 100 ft 5-13. 5-14. 5-15. 5-16. A refueling crew consists of what minimum number of persons? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four The type of fuel contained in the tank of a fuel truck is displayed across the side of the tank. What color and what size lettering is used on the tank? 1. 8-inch-high blue lettering superimposed on 6-inch-high red reflective tape 2. 5-inch-high orange lettering superimposed on 7-inch-high gray reflective tape 3. 4-inch-high green lettering superimposed on 6-inch-high gray reflective tape 4. 6-inch-high red lettering superimposed on 8-inch-high white reflective tape What are the two types of systems used to fuel naval aircraft? 1. Automatic and manual 2. Gravity and pressure 3. Automatic and gravity 4. Manual and pressure Which of the following is/are (an) advantage(s) of pressure fueling? 1. Fueling can be done from a single point only 2. Aircraft can be given a faster turnaround time only 3. Fueling and defueling can be done from a single point only 4. Fueling and defueling can be done from a single point, which gives the aircraft faster turnaround time 31

5-17. To find the fueling instructions for an aircraft, you should refer to what publication? 1. IPB 2. MIM 3. PMIC 4. MRC 5-18. What is the last step you should take when fueling an aircraft? 1. Apply electrical power to the aircraft 2. Position the vent monitors on the aircraft according to the applicable MIM 3. Check the aircraft for leaks 4. Replace the safety cap on the aircraft receptacle 5-19. What device or devices is/are used to drain residual fuel? 1. Fuel cell water drain valves 2. A defueling hose 3. A fueling hose 4. The engine CSD drain 5-20. In some cases, engine oil is identified by a four-digit number. What does this number tell you about the oil? 1. Its viscosity only 2. Its use and viscosity 3. Its part number only 4. Its part number and its viscosity 5-21. What is the viscosity rating of aircraft engine oil No. 2085? 1. 208 2. 2 3. 85 4. 20 5-22. What type of oil is used in most turbojet engines? 1. MIL-L-23699 2. MIL-L-24699 3. MIL-L-25699 4. MIL-L-26699 5-23. Hydraulic fluid MIL-H-83282 is what color? 1. Clear 2. Red 3. Blue 4. Orange 5-24. You should use hydraulic fluid MIL-H-46170 in which of the following instances? 1. The hydraulic systems of naval aircraft only 2. In the hydraulic systems of Air Force aircraft only 3. The hydraulic systems of naval and Air Force aircraft 4. When preserving hydraulic systems and components in naval aircraft 5-25. A can of hydraulic fluid has been opened and partially used. When should this open can be disposed of? 1. Within 24 hours only 2. Within 48 hours only 3. Within 72 hours 4. Immediately 5-26. When an aircraft lacks a tire inflation chart plate, a plane captain should obtain tire inflation pressure data from what source? 1. The applicable IPB 2. The applicable MIM 3. The maintenance requirements card 4. OPNAVINST 4790.2 32

IN ANSWERING QUESTION 5-27, REFER TO FIGURE 5-6 IN THE TEXTBOOK. 5-27. An aircraft is land based and has a gross weight of 19,000 pounds. What is the proper tire pressure for this aircraft? 1. 280 psi 2. 290 psi 3. 300 psi 4. 310 psi 5-28. What equipment should you always use when inflating aircraft tires? 1. A portable air bottle 2. An air servicing trailer 3. A nitrogen servicing trailer 4. A remote inflator unit 5-29. Which of the following is a safety precaution you should follow before you remove a wheel from an aircraft? 1. Inflate the tire 2. Deflate the tire 3. Check the tire for proper inflation 4. Disassemble split-type tires 5-30. What personnel have the responsibility for refilling liquid oxygen converters? 1. Plane captains 2. Aircrewmen 3. AMEs 4. AMHs 5-31. Of the following parts of high-pressure air valve MS 28889-1) which one presents a FOD hazard and is normally removed? 1. The dust cover 2. The pin 3. The valve stem 4 . The O-ring 5-32. A total of how many gas cylinders are carried on an air or nitrogen servicing trailer? 1. Eight 2. Six 3. Three 4. Four 5-33. You need to determine the remaining amount of oil in the preoiler (PON-6). What device should you use? 1. A float gauge 2. A sight glass 3. A direct-reading gauge 4. A dipstick 5-34. What device should be used to catch the overflow oil when the preoiler (PON-6) is used? 1. A bucket 2. A specially designed drain pan 3. A drain bottle assembly 4. A waste oil rag 5-35. What type of filtration system is used in an HSU-1 to make sure that clean hydraulic fluid is delivered to an aircraft system? 1. A 1-micron filtration system 2. A 2-micron filtration system 3. A 3-micron filtration system 4. A 4-micron filtration system 5-36. What is the exact capacity of the reservoir on the HSU-1? 1. 1 gal 2. 2 gal 3. 3 gal 4. 4 gal 33

5-37. While an HSU-1 is not in use, what method is used to make sure that the hose end remains clean? 1. It is covered with a MAF bag 2. It is covered with bubble wrap 3. It is connected to an external fitting 4. It is connected to a fitting on the base of the HSU-1 5-38. In the Navy, you are responsible for your own safety as well as the safety of your shipmates. 1. True 2. False 5-39. What device should be used on or around jet intakes during ground maintenance turnup of jet aircraft? 1. Protective struts 2. Protective covers 3. Protective screens 4. Protective stands 5-40. After operation, personnel should not work on the exhaust section of a jet engine for what minimum period? 1. 15 min 2. 30 min 3. 45 min 4. 60 min 5-41. Personnel working around jet aircraft should take which of the following precautions to protect their hearing? 1. Wear the proper ear protection 2. Complete work within exposure time limits 3. Have periodic checks on hearing ability 4. Each of the above IN ANSWERING QUESTION 5-42, REFER TO FIGURE 5-13 IN THE TEXTBOOK. 5-42. When the aircraft shown is at military power, in what zone would you be exposed to a maximum of 112 dB of engine noise? 1. Contour A 2. Contour B 3. Contour C 4. Contour D 5-43. Which of the following is either a safety precaution or a safety attitude that you should follow when you are working with or around ejection seats? 1. Always consider an ejection seat system as loaded and armed 2. Only authorized personnel may work on ejection seats 3. Ejection seats must be treated with the same respect as a loaded gun 4. Each of the above 5-44. From what direction should personnel approach an overheated wheel? 1. At a 45° angle 2. From the right side 3. From the left side 4. From the fore or aft direction 5-45. What is the recommended procedure for cooling an overheated wheel? 1. Spray the wheel with CO 2 2. Spray the wheel with cool water 3. Spray the wheel with AFFF 4. Park the aircraft in an isolated area for 45 to 60 minutes 34

5-46. If operational necessity dictates that a wheel be cooled immediately, a plane captain should get supervision from personnel who are in what rating? 1. AM 2. AD 3. AE 4. AT 5-47. If you have to handle liquid oxygen, you should wear what type of gloves? 1. Tight-fitting rubber 2. Loose-fitting rubber 3. Tight-fitting leather 4. Loose-fitting leather 5-48. You are handling liquid oxygen. Which of the following is a description of the way you should wear your clothing? 1. Wear cuffless trousers 2. Tuck your trousers into your shoes 3. Roll up your sleeves 4. Roll up your trousers 5-49. Which of the following is a safety precaution that you should follow when working with liquid oxygen? 1. Do not carry matches in liquid oxygen handling areas 2. Keep tools free from oil and grease 3. Do not permit smoking in liquid oxygen handling areas 4. Each of the above 5-50. Predeployment training lectures for personnel associated with the flight deck should include which of the following topics? 1. Flight deck and hangar deck safety precautions 2. Tie-down requirements and techniques 3. Special shipboard maintenance procedures 4. Each of the above 5-51. During the launching and recovery of aircraft, all personnel that are not required by such operations should stand clear of ‘personnel involved in the launch and recovery operations. 1. True 2. False 5-52. Plane captains are required to wear (a) what color helmets and (b) what color flotation vests? 1. (a) Brown (b) green 2. (a) Brown (b) brown 3. (a) Green (b) brown 4. (a) Green (b) green 5-53. What person has the authority to approve aircraft jacking? 1. The maintenance chief 2. The maintenance officer 3. The shop supervisor 4. The aircraft handling officer 35

5-54. Which of the following publications should you consult to find the details of special programs? 1. NAVAIR 01-1A-509 2. NAVAIR 15-l-540 3. OPNAVINST 4790.2 4. OPNAVINST 5000.3 5-55. What causes the largest percentage of premature engine removals? 1. Faulty manufacturing 2. Foreign object damage 3. Faulty maintenance 4. Pilot error 5-56. Which of the following is/are (a) major cause(s) of FOD? 1. Poor housekeeping only 2. Improper maintenance practices only 3. Carelessness only 4. Poor housekeeping, improper maintenance practices, and carelessness 5-57. The Tool Control Program is based upon which of the following concepts? 1. Preventive maintenance 2. Instant inventory 3. Tool replacement 4. Tool usage 5-58. Which of the following is an outcome of the Tool Control Program? 1. Greater initial outfitting and tool replacement costs 2. More tool pilferage 3. More man-hours required to complete each maintenance task 4. Increased availability of proper tools for specific maintenance tasks 5-59. During a daily/turnaround inspection, a plane captain discovers a piece of hydraulic equipment is out of calibration. What action(s) should the plane captain take? 1. Complete the inspection, and then notify his or her supervisor 2. Notify his or her supervisor immediately 3. Use the unit because the calibration is not important 4. Notify his or her supervisor at the end of the shift 5-60. What form should you use when requesting oil analysis on an oil sample? 1. VIDS/MAF 2. DD Form 2024 3. DD Form 2027 4. DD Form 2026 5-61. Detailed information concerning maintenance requirements and acceptable contamination levels of hydraulic fluid can be found in which of the following publications? 1. OPNAVINST 4790.2 2. NOAP manual 3. NAVAIR 01-1A-17 4. NAVAIR 01-1A-509 5-62. Under normal conditions, at what interval will a plane captain take a fuel sample? 1. Before the first flight each day 2. Before and after each flight 3. Every 72 hours 4. When directed by maintenance control 36

5-63. An egress system checkout for personnel working on or around aircraft must be given by a qualified individual who is in what rating? 1. AD 2. AE 3. AME 4. AMH 5-64. After the initial egress system checkout, maintenance personnel must receive an additional checkout a minimum of how often? 1. Every 12 months 2. Every 9 months 3. Every 3 months 4. Every 6 months 5-65. Personnel removed from maintenance responsibilities for over what minimum period must receive a new egress system checkout? 1. 60 days 2. 90 days 3. 30 days 4. 120 days 5-66. What action(s) help(s) prevent the improper use of SE? 5-67. After the appropriate signatures have been obtained, an SE license is good for what maximum period? 1. 1 yr 2. 2 yr 3. 3 yr 4. 4 yr 5-68. What type of inspection is performed when an aircraft returns from SDLM? 1. Conditional 2. Acceptance 3. Periodic 4. Special 5-69. What type of inspection divides the total scheduled maintenance concept into small packages? 1. Special 2. Phase 3. Preflight 4. Turnaround 1. Ready availability of the equipment 2. Effective supervision of personnel only 3. Training of personnel only 4. Effective supervision and training of personnel 37

ASSIGNMENT 6 Textbook Assignment: "Work Center Management and Quality Assurance." Pages 6-1 through 6-23. 6-1. Which of the following is NOT a concern of the work center supervisor? 1. Know your personnel and their limitations 2. See that the job is done correctly and safely 3. Conduct the Monthly Maintenance Plan meeting 4. Train your personnel to do the best job possible 6-2. Which of the following is NOT considered a typical duty or responsibility of a supervisor? 1. Promote teamwork 2. Inspect every task upon completion 3. Maintain liaison with other work centers 6-3. 4. Ensure personnel and equipment safety The operational efficiency of a work center is dependent to a large extent upon what factor? 1. The number of people assigned 2. The backlog in workload 3. The arrangement of the work spaces and equipment 4. The experience level of the division officer 6-4. Which manual is used as a guideline for the establishment of an effective training program? 1. OPNAVINST 4790.2 2. OPNAV NOTICE 4790 3. SECNAVINST 4790.2 4. SECNAV NOTICE 4790 6-5. 6-6. 6-7. 6-8. Which of the following factors add to your expenses and cut down on overall efficiency? 1. Broken tools 2. Misdirected efforts 3. Injured personnel 4. All of the above Other than tracking test equipment, updating files/publications, and ensuring tools are safe, how can functions of the work center be further enhanced? 1. Request more frequent Q/A audits 2. Allow the division officer to care for the administrative details 3. Judicious delegation of authority to other responsible petty officers 4. The supervisor must oversee every detail in the work center Which of the following types of maintenance is required by hours, calender periods, or starts? 1. Unscheduled maintenance 2. Scheduled maintenance 3. Phase maintenance 4. Intermediate level maintenance What is considered one of the best tools for ensuring a smooth flow of maintenance information between shifts and other supervisors? 1. Daily maintenance meeting 2. NALCOMIS 3. Intercom system 4. Work center superviso r 38

6-9. Which of the following responsibilities is a function of the QA division? 1. Determining deficiencies 2. Analyzing discrepancy trends 3. Determining the quality of maintenance 4. Each of the above 6-10. What is the concept of quality assurance? 1. Training of maintenance inspectors 2. Prevention of the occurrence of defects 3. Ensuring that quality maintenance is performed 4. Ensuring that quality inspections are performed 6-11. The achievement of effective quality assurance within a maintenance activity depends upon what factors? 1. Knowledge and prevention only 2. Special skills and prevention only 3. Knowledge and special skills only 4. Knowledge, special skills, and prevention 6-12. A periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, and policies is known as a/an 1. QAR inspection 2. audit 3. special inspection 4. EI request 6-13. What determines the success or failure in achieving high standards of quality? 1. Local instructions 2. Frame of mind of all personnel 3. Abundance of CDIs/QARs 4. Up-to-date test equipment 6-14. When, if ever, can CDI personnel certify inspection of their own work? 1. When on a detachment 2. When in duty status and no other CDI is around 3. When authorized by the work center supervisor 4. Never 6-15. QA division personnel will occasionally accompany plane captains during inspections. This accompaniment will occur at what minimum interval? 1. Once a month 2. Once a quarter 3. Semiannually 4. Annually 6-16. Completed check flight checklists are retained for what minimum period of time? 1. 3 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater 2. 6 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater 3. 9 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater 4. 12 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater 6-17. What factors determine the number of personnel assigned to a QA division? 1. Size of the unit and number of work shifts 2. Size of the command and type of aircraft 3. Size of the work spaces and number of aircraft 4. Size of the work spaces and number of work shifts 39

6-18. When a small OMD elects to organize a 6-23. The minimum qualifications for personnel QA division, which of the following selected for CDI are established by what personnel should be permanently assigned? activity or person? 1. All QARs 2. The QA officer only 3. The QA supervisor only 4. The QA officer and QA supervisor 6-19. OMDs with only one work center in the maintenance department may have qualified inspectors with what designation? 1. CDI 2. NDI 3. CDQAR 4. QAR 6-20. QARs have which of the following functions? 1. Reviewing incoming technical directives 2. Assisting in preparation of engineering investigation (EI) reports 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Inspecting their own work 6-21. Which of the following is a requirement to become a QAR? 1. Be assigned to the work center the longest period of time 2. Be senior in grade and experience 3. Have prior experience as a work center supervisor 4. Have prior experience as a CDI 6-22. Under certain specific conditions, CDQARs may be assigned in work centers where they are used in the same capacity as QARs who are assigned to the QA division. 1. True 2. False 1. Work center involved 2. Division officer involved 3. QA division 4. Maintenance officer 6-24. Under which of the following circumstances can an officer in charge of a detachment designate QA personnel? 1. When the CO of the squadron grants this authority in writing to the officer in charge 2. When the deployment is in excess of 90 days 3. When all procedures and requirements for designating QA personnel are accomplished by the detachment 4. Both 2 and 3 above 6-25. What officer is authorized to designate CDQARs in an activity? 1. The CO 2. The AMO 3. The QA officer 4. The aircraft division officer 6-26. At an AIMD maintenance activity, what personnel may use a QA stamp in place of a signature? 1. QARs only 2. CDIs only 3. QARs and CDQARs only 4. CDIs, QARs, and CDQARS 6-27. If organizational activities desire to use QA stamps, what personnel may use them? 1. CDIs and QARs only 2. CDIs and CDQARs only 3. CDQARs and QARs only 4. CDIs, CDQARs, and QARs 40

6-28. What is the time requirement before a QA stamp may be reassigned? 1. 12 months 2. 9 months 3. 3 months 4. 6 months 6-29. If QA appears on an MRC, what person performs the inspection? -1. The CDI in the work center 2. The QAR in the work center 3. Either 1 or 2 above, depending on the workload 4. The QAR, CDQAR, or CDI that is annotated on the master and work center decks 6-30. In an organizational maintenance activity, a final inspection by a QAR/CDQAR is required for which of the following situations? 1. A task that requires a functional check flight 2. A task that will require in-flight maintenance 3. A task that requires a toolbox to be checked before starting 4. A task that the work center supervisor has never performed 6-31. During in-flight maintenance, what person is authorized to sign as inspector if a designated QA inspector is not available? 1. The senior aircrew maintenance person 2. The flight engineer 3. The pilot 4. The person who performed the maintenance 6-32. After an in-flight discrepancy has been signed off, what other inspection, if any, is required when the aircraft has returned to home base? 1. A CDI must inspect the aircraft 2. The QA supervisor must inspect the aircraft 3. A QAR must inspect the repairs if the discrepancy involves safety of flight 4. None 6-33. Which of the following is NOT a management responsibility of the QA division? 1. QA audits 2. Technical publications 3. Tool Control Program 4. Maintenance department safety 6-34. Work center audits are conducted at what minimum intervals? 1. Monthly 2. Quarterly 3. Semiannually 4. Annually 6-35. Upon completion of an audit, a report of the findings is submitted to the cognizant division and what official? 1. The administration officer 2. The QA officer 3. The AMO 4. The MMCO 6-36. Audits are maintained on file for what minimum period of time? 1. 6 months 2. 1 year 3. 18 months 4. Until the next audit is completed 41

6-37. Investigations and reports of naval aircraft mishaps that are not reported under OPNAVINST 4790.2 are reported under what instruction? 1. OPNAVINST 5100.19 2. OPNAVINST 3120.32 3. OPNAVINST 3750.6 4. OPNAVINST P-5100 6-38. Safety meetings are required to be held at what minimum intervals? 1. Weekly 2. Monthly 3. Quarterly 4. Semiannually 6-39. The QA division is required to report deficiencies according to the OPNAVINST 4790.2 under the NAMDRP. What does NAMDRP denote? 1. Naval Assessment Manager’s Discrepancy Reporting Plan 2. Navy Air Maintenance Department Discrepancy Reporting Program 3. Navy Air Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Plan 4. Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program 6-40. In addition to EIs and ADRs, what reports are required under the NAMDRP? 1. HMR, QDR, and TPDRs only 2. HMR, EMR, QDR, and TPDRs 3. HRM, ER, QAR, and TDRs 4. HRM, EMR, QAR, and TDPRs 6-41. What officer, with assistance from QA, reviews all correspondence relating to aircraft flight mishaps? 1. The aviation safety officer 2. The aircraft maintenance officer 3. The assistant aircraft maintenance officer 4. The maintenance material control officer 6-42. Changes or corrections to NATOPS manuals are reported by using procedures found in which of the following publications or types of message? 1. OPNAVINST 3710.7 2. OPNAVINST 3510.12 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. TPDR message 6-43. Which of the following instructions contains procedures used by supply activities to report deficiencies that result from incorrect preservation, packing, marking, or handling? 1. OPNAVINST 4790.2 2. NAVSUPINST 3750.2 3. NAVAIRINST 3510.12 4. NAVSUPINST 4440.179 6-44. What type of report is used when a deficiency is discovered in materials that, if not corrected, could result in death or injury? 1. EI 2. ADR 3. HMR 4. TPDR 42

6-45. 6-46. 6-47. 6-48. 6-49. An HMR priority message must be submitted within a maximum of how many hours after the discovery of the discrepancy? 1. 12 2. 24 3. 36 4. 48 An explosive incident is reported in accordance with what instruction? 1. OPNAVINST 5100.7 2. OPNAVINST 5215.1 3. OPNAVINST 8100.3 4. OPNAVINST 8600.2 The term TFOA should be used on an HMR report that involves which of the following incidents? 1. A fuselage panel that falls off an aircraft while it is in flight 2. A request is made for technical information from NADEP 3. A safety of flight defect is discovered on a reworked aircraft 4. An item of material does not conform to specification requirements Engineering investigations consist of which of the following types of actions? 1. Disassembly and inspection 2. Material analysis 3. Engineering assistance 4. Each of the above Unless combined with an HMR, within what maximum period of time after you discover a deficiency must the EI request be submitted? 1. 24 hours 2. 5 working days 3. 10 working days 4. 30 calendar days 6-50. What is the purpose of a Quality Deficiency Report (QDR)? 1. To improve the quality assurance inspector’s performance 2. To improve the quality of parts that are removed for high time 3. To report deficiencies in quality during the rework or manufacturing process to improve the quality of work 4. To report on the quality of work performed at the inter- mediate maintenance level 6-51. Technical Publication Deficiency Reporting (TPDR) should NOT be used when you report deficiencies in which of the following documents? 1. Maintenance Requirements Cards 2. Work Unit Code Manuals 3. Illustrated Parts Breakdowns 4. OPNAV instructions 6-52. What activity manages the ADR program? 1. NAVAVNDEPOTOPSCEN 2. COMNAVAIRSYSCOM 3. NATSF 4. OPNAV 6-53. The requirement for submission of the initial ADR Form (SF 368) is within how long after the acceptance flight? 1. 5 working days 2. 10 working days 3. 15 days 4. 30 days 43

6-54. When a misuse of equipment is witnessed and reported, which of the following personnel may submit the Support Equipment (SE) Misuse/Abuse forms? 1. SE division officer 2. Safety officer 3. QA personnel 4. The witness to the misuse 6-55. Which of the following procedures is used by QA for a successful monitoring program? 1. Training quality QA representatives 2. Maintaining an up-to-date library 3. Maintaining up-to-date MIs 4. Conducting audits 6-56. Which of the following is NOT a program monitored by QA? 1. FOD 2. Tool Control 3. Ordnance Loading/Handling Safety 4. Tire/Wheel Maintenance Safety 6-57. QA should use which of the following aids to monitor the different programs under its cognizance? 1. Safety posters 2. Accident reports 3. MIs or NAMPSOPs 4. The experience of the work center supervisor 44

ASSIGNMENT 7 Textbook Assignment: "Maintenance and Production Control," Pages 7-1 through 7-23. 7-1. “Actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability” defines which of the following terms? 1. Management 2. Production 3. Maintenance 4. Inspection 7-2. Which of the following statements defines management? 7-3. 1. The efficient attainment of objectives 2. The coordination of the departmental workload 3. To ensure the entire capability of the department is utilized 4. To control the daily workload Which of the following statements is a responsibility of maintenance control? 1. Coordinate and monitor the workload of the maintenance department 2. Establish procedures to monitor the Subsystem Capability and Impact Report (SCIR) 3. Validate NMCS/PMCS supply status listings each day 4. Each of the above 7-4. What work center, division, or department is responsible for establishing procedures for controlling cannibalization within a squadron? 1. Material control 2. Maintenance control 3. Supply support center 4. Aviation support division 7-5. If you need to perform maintenance on an aircraft that requires “no electrical power,” what must you do? 7-6. 1. Post someone outside the aircraft to inform others 2. Request quality assurance place the aircraft in a “no power” status 3. Request maintenance control place the aircraft in a “no power” status 4. Nothing, just go to work What is the best tool for ensuring a smooth flow of maintenance information? 1. A passdown log 2. Daily maintenance meetings 3. Assign an administrative assistant to the LPO 4. NALCOMIS 7-7. What report enables supporting commanders to assess current material conditions and mission capabilities of squadron aircraft? 1. QDR 2. MDR 3. AMRR 4. TPDR 7-8. By what means is the Aviation Material Readiness Report normally submitted? 1. Naval letter 2. Unclassified immediate message 3. Unclassified routine message 4. Classified immediate message 45

7-9. Where can maintenance and aircrew personnel find an accurate, comprehensive record of all outstanding maintenance requirements on a specific aircraft? 1. The aircraft logbook 2. The Aviation Material Readiness Report 3. The Maintenance Data Report 4. The Aircraft Discrepancy Book 7-10. As a minimum, how long must completed MAFS be retained in the Aircraft Discrepancy Book? 1. 10 months 2. 12 months 3. 10 flights 4. 12 flights 7-11. What form is used to designate an aircraft “safe for flight”? 1. OPNAV 4790/141 1. 3 months from completed date 2. OPNAV 4790/26A 2. 3 months from date of issue 3. OPNAV 4790/60 3. 6 months from completed date 4. OPNAV 47900/113 4. 6 months from date of issue 7-12. The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record is signed by what person or persons? 1. The aircraft maintenance officer (or designated representative) only 2. The pilot only 3. The plane captain only 4. The aircraft maintenance officer (or designated representative), the pilot, and plane captain 7-13. Detailed procedures for maintaining aircraft historical files can be found in what volume of OPNAVINST 4790.2? 1. Volume I 2. Volume II 3. Volume III 4. Volume V 7-14. Activities using NALCOMIS must store current MAFs on the host computer. How many preceding months of completed MAFS must be stored? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 6 7-15. For squadrons operating with VIDS/MAFs, which historical file should include engine–related VIDS/MAFs? 1. Aircraft general file 2. Miscellaneous file 3. Aircraft inspection file 4. Aircraft engine file 7-16. In the TD compliance historical file, at a minimum, how long must VIDS/MAFs be retained. 7-17. What reporting method was designed to reveal an equipments mission capability. 1. MDRs 2. NALCOMIS 3. VIDS 4. SCIR 7-18. SCIR reports are generated from what codes on the VIDS/MAFs or in NALCOMIS? 1. Equipment Operational Capability codes 2. Type Equipment codes 3. Malfunction codes 4. Work Unit Codes 46

7-19. The first position of the EOC code is derived from what source? 7-20. 1. The Work Unit Code manual 2. OPNAVINST 4790.2 3. MESM, OPNAVINST 5442.4 4. Local maintenance instruction When an aircraft is delivered to the Navy, the Aircraft Logbook, OPNAV 4790/19, is initiated by what activity or office? 1. Manufacturer 2. OPNAV 3. Original accepting activity 4. NADEP 7-21. Aircraft logbooks are normally kept in what location? 7-22. 1. In the aircraft 2. In the line shack 3. In the operations office 4. In the maintenance control office What activity generates the Structural Life Limits Form, OPNAV 4790/142, for the aircraft logbook? 7-23. 1. NADEP 2. NAVAIR 3. The squadron 4. The functional wing The Inspection Record is identified by what OPNAV number? 1. OPNAV 4790/22A 2. OPNAV 4790/24A 3. OPNAV 4790/26B 4. OPNAV 4790/28A 7-24. The Repair/Rework Record is identified by what OPNAV number? 1. OPNAV 4790/24A 2. OPNAV 4790/23A 3. OPNAV 4790/21A 4. OPNAV 4790/18A TO ANSWER QUESTION 7-25, REFER TO FIGURE 7-7 IN THE TEXT. 7-25. 7-26. 7-27. In figure 7-7, what block is used to document remarks about a technical directive? 1. 2 2: 5 3. 7 4. 8 What type of technical directives are issued in greater numbers and require careful screening to ensure accuracy? 1. PPBs and PPCs 2. AFBs and AFCs 3. SEBs and SECs 4. AVBs and AVCs Which of the following actions requires an entry in the Miscellaneous/History section of an aircraft logbook? 1. The aircraft is damaged in an in-flight mishap 2. The aircraft is exposed to a large quantity of salt water 3. Dye is added directly to the aircraft fuel tanks to determine the location of a leak 4. Each of the above 47

7-28. On the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record, oil analysis results are documented on what form or record? 7-33. Which of the following equipment does NOT require an AESR? 1. OPNAV 4790/136A 2. OPNAV 4790/27A 3. OPNAV 4790/24A 4. OPNAV 4790/25A 7-29. Explosive devices installed in personnel parachutes are recorded on what form or record? 7-34. 1. Aircraft engine 2. Aircraft propeller 3. Aircraft engine turbine assembly 4. Auxiliary power unit What record is used to record maintenance data for modules replaced by an intermediate maintenance activity? 1. Installed Explosive Device Record 2. Inventory Record 3. Parachute Record 4. Miscellaneous History Record 7-30. What items should NOT to be listed on the Inventory Record, OPNAV 4790/27A? 7-35. 1. ASR 2. EHR 3. MSR 4. SRC What record is used to record TD compliance on a quick engine change kit (QECK)? 1. Components requiring an AESR 1 . A S R 2. Components requiring an EHR 2 . E H R 3. Components requiring an SRC 3. MSR 4. Components requiring an MSR 4. SRC 7-31. Where is the hardback copy of the Parachute Record kept? IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 7-36 AND 7-37, REFER TO FIGURE 7-19 IN THE TEXT. 1. A permanent file designated by the AMO 2. In the logbook of the aircraft in which the parachute is installed 3. Maintenance Control 4. In the aircraft where the parachute is installed 7-36. On a Scheduled Removal Component Card (SRC), in which section is the serial number of the component documented? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV 7-32. What officer designates the maintenance of all original aviation life support systems (ALSS) records? 1. MMCO 2. AMO 3. XO 4. CO 7-37. On a Scheduled Removal Component Card (SRC), in what section would you document the bureau number on which a component is installed? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV 48

7-38. What is done with an EHR when the component is removed and turned into supply as a retrograde? 1. The EHR is destroyed 1. The aircraft maintenance officer 2. The EHR is put into a suspense file 2. The supply officer 3. The EHR is forwarded to the 3. The maintenance material control manufacturer officer 4. The EHR accompanies the 4. The assistant aircraft maintenance component officer 7-39. Once the NAVFLIRS is signed certified for completeness by the aircraft commander, where does it go next? 1. ECAMS operator for entry of ECAMS data 2. Maintenance control for screening and entry of pertinent aircraft information into logbooks 3. Operations for entry of flight information in aviators logbooks 4. Analyst for forwarding to the data services facility (DSF) 7-40. Which of the following persons or offices has responsibility for ensuring validity of the Naval Flight Record Subsystem (NAVFLIRS)? 1. Analyst 2. Maintenance control 3. Operations department 4. Each of the above 7-41. What work center is considered the “nerve center” of the Intermediate Maintenance Activity? 1. Production control 2. Aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU) 3. Quality assurance 4. Maintenance administration 7-42. Production control is directly responsible to what officer for the overall production effort? 7-43. Which of the following is NOT considered a responsibility of Production Control personnel? 1. Periodically accompany CDIs to observe their proficiency 2. Maintain liaison with the supply department 3. Maintain VIDS display boards 4. Ensure maximum use of material resources 7-44. When you order parts for a component inducted into an I-level work center, what work center assigns the Project/Priority code to your request? 1. Aviation support division (ASD) 2. Aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU) 3. Production control 4. Component control section (CCS) 7-45. Priorities 2, 5, and 12 requisitions can be submitted by activities with what force activity designator (FAD)? 1. FAD I 2. FAD II 3. FAD III 4. FAD IV 49

7-46. Project codes are mandatory entries on all requisitions. 1. True 2. False 7-47. At a minimum, how often should a joint awaiting parts validation be performed with the AWP unit in supply? 1. Quarterly 2. Monthly 3. Weekly 4. Daily 7-48. What priority is assigned to the repair of salvaged material? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 7-49. What priority is assigned to the repair of material for non-mission capable aircraft? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 7-50. What priority is assigned to the repair of critical local repair cycle assets (LRCAs)? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 7-51. What priority is assigned to the repair of assets belonging to an activity within 30 days of deployment? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 7-52. What priority is assigned to the repair of non-critical local repair cycle assets? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 7-53. What priority is assigned to the repair or manufacture of material that is nonaeronautical? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 7-54. What priority is assigned to the repair or manufacture of material for non-fixed allowance stock? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 7-55. Priorities may be adjusted either higher or lower by IMA maintenance and supply officers to meet local support requirements. 1. True 2. False 50